1. A sandstone bed shows normal grading, a flute cast at its base, and upward-succeeding massive, plane-laminated, and ripple-laminated divisions. This sequence is best interpreted as the deposit of: (a) debris flow (b) grain flow (c) turbidity current (d) contour current
2. When calcite cement grows over a single calcite grain in continuous optical continuity, this diagenetic feature is called: (a) rim overgrowth (b) antitaxial overgrowth (c) blocky overgrowth (d) syntaxial overgrowth
3. A mud-free carbonate rock exhibiting a grain-supported fabric is classified as: (a) grainstone (b) packstone (c) floatstone (d) bindstone
4. The Barrovian metamorphic zone characterized by the assemblage biotite + chlorite + phengitic muscovite + quartz + albite is the: (a) albite zone (b) biotite zone (c) zeolite zone (d) chlorite zone
5. Granulite-facies metamorphism of a mafic protolith is typically marked by which mineral assemblage? (a) Hornblende + Plagioclase + Quartz + Garnet (b) Forsterite + Orthopyroxene + Clinopyroxene + Epidote (c) Clinopyroxene + Orthopyroxene + Plagioclase + Garnet + Quartz (d) Forsterite + Orthopyroxene + Clinopyroxene + Staurolite
6. During flattening of rocks containing rigid grains, low-pressure zones form on grain sides oriented perpendicular to maximum compressive stress. These are called: (a) solution cleavage (b) pressure shadows (c) pressure solution (d) stylolites
7. Match the rock in List-I with its description in List-II:
List-I: A. Blueschist B. Pseudotachylite C. Hornfels D. Skarn
List-II: 1. Ultrafine-grained, glassy material found as thin veins 2. Schistose rock rich in Na-amphibole 3. Fine-grained, non-schistose rock composed largely of recrystallized silicates/oxides 4. Ca-Fe-Mg-Mn metasomatic silicate rock with zoning/banding
Codes: (a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
8. A regionally metamorphosed rock (granulite facies) containing calcite, dolomite, quartz, diopside, wollastonite, K-feldspar, and forsterite most likely had which protolith? (a) Mafic (b) Pelitic (c) Carbonate rock (d) Ultramafic
9. The reaction 3 Anorthite = Grossular + 2 Kyanite + Quartz signals the eclogite facies in metabasites. What is the chemical formula of grossular here? (a) Ca₃Al₂Si₃O₁₂ (b) CaSiO₃ (c) (Ca,Mg)Si₂O₆ (d) CaCO₃
10. A granoblastic polygonal texture typically indicates: (a) recrystallization texture (b) crystallization texture (c) metasomatic texture (d) mylonitic texture
11. Which calc-silicate assemblage is metamorphically equivalent to the sillimanite zone in pelites? (a) Anorthite-pyroxene (b) Zoisite-calcite-biotite (c) Zoisite-hornblende (d) Anorthite-hornblende
12. The hinge line of a fold refers to: (a) a line dividing the fold symmetrically (b) a line always parallel to the fold axis (c) the line of maximum curvature on a folded surface (d) the line of minimum curvature on a folded surface
13. Oceanic strike-slip faults linked to lithospheric plate margins are termed: (a) transform faults (b) tear faults (c) wrench faults (d) scissor faults
14. A fold structure where rock salt has pierced through overlying brittle strata to occupy the core is known as a: (a) disharmonic fold (b) drag fold (c) box fold (d) diapiric fold
15. A fault exhibiting both dip-slip and strike-slip movement components is called: (a) strike-slip fault (b) dip-slip fault (c) oblique-slip fault (d) wrench fault
16. A crystal system with four three-fold rotation axes, each at 54°44′ to the crystallographic axes, belongs to which system? (a) Hexagonal (b) Isometric (c) Orthorhombic (d) Triclinic
17. During which deuteric alteration does Ca-rich plagioclase transform into nearly pure albite plus epidote? (a) Saussuritization (b) Devitrification (c) Chloritization (d) Uralitization
18. Which rock type typically shows the greatest enrichment in incompatible trace elements? (a) Basalt (b) Dunite (c) Peridotite (d) Granite
19. Which magma series occurs exclusively in subduction-zone settings? (a) Calc-alkaline (b) Tholeiitic (c) Alkaline (d) Komatiitic
20. The average continental crust reservoir corresponds to which Rb/Sr ratio? (a) 0.124 (b) 0.158 (c) 0.182 (d) 0.242
21. On a REE diagram, the europium anomaly appears between which pair of elements? (a) La-Nd (b) Nd-Sm (c) Sm-Gd (d) Gd-Dy
22. Which symbol represents the deviation of a rock’s Nd-isotope composition from the chondritic uniform reservoir? (a) ω (Omega) (b) ε (Epsilon) (c) δ (Delta) (d) υ (Upsilon)
23. On a plot of ²³⁸U/²⁰⁶Pb versus ²³⁵U/²⁰⁷Pb, the curve representing points with matching ages from both ratios is the: (a) mixing line (b) isochron line (c) concordia curve (d) discordia curve
24. Within the structure of silicate melts, Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions function as: (a) network modifiers (b) network formers (c) bridging atoms (d) non-bridging atoms
25. Which type of MORB originates from mantle depleted in incompatible elements? (a) N-MORB (b) P-MORB (c) T-MORB (d) VAB
26. Which geochemical reservoir is defined based on the Nd-isotope composition of chondrites? (a) DM (b) BSE (c) PREMA (d) HIMU
27. Which mineral pair does NOT represent an equilibrium assemblage? (a) Quartz and orthoclase (b) Forsterite and quartz (c) Hornblende and andesine (d) Labradorite and augite
28. Along a wave-dominated coast, proceeding from land toward sea, the correct order of zones is: (a) shoaling–surf–breaker–swash (b) swash–shoaling–surf–breaker (c) swash–surf–breaker–shoaling (d) surf–shoaling–swash–breaker
29. The shallowest part of a subaqueous delta, extending to roughly 10 m water depth, is called the: (a) upper delta plain (b) lower delta plain (c) prodelta (d) delta front
30. Arranged by increasing bed shear stress, which sequence of sedimentary structures is correct? (a) Parting lineation, dune, flute mark, ripple (b) Ripple, dune, parting lineation, flute mark (c) Dune, parting lineation, flute mark, ripple (d) Flute mark, parting lineation, ripple, dune
31. Deep-focus earthquakes most commonly occur along: (a) mid-oceanic ridges (b) continental rifts (c) transform faults (d) Benioff zones
32. The pre-90 Ma supercontinent comprising present-day North America, Greenland, Europe, and part of Asia is: (a) Superia (b) Gondwanaland (c) Laurentia (d) Laurasia
33. The process by which subducting rocks and sediments become attached to the overriding plate through thrusting is termed: (a) obduction (b) rejuvenation (c) underplating (d) offscraping
34. The lithosphere consists of: (a) mantle and outer core (b) mantle and asthenosphere (c) upper mantle and crust (d) continental and oceanic crust
35. In hexagonal crystals, the single direction along which no double refraction occurs is called the: (a) optic axis (b) optic axial plane (c) isogyre (d) optic normal
36. The interference figure obtained from a uniaxial crystal sectioned parallel to its optic axis is known as: (a) dichroic figure (b) flash figure (c) Brewster’s figure (d) uniaxial indicatrix
37. Which instrument helps distinguish between kyanite, sillimanite, and andalusite? (a) EPMA (b) XRD (c) XRF (d) ICP-MS
38. Match the mineral in List-I with its silicate class in List-II:
List-I: A. Phlogopite B. Enstatite C. Anthophyllite D. Beryl
List-II: 1. Single-chain inosilicate 2. Cyclosilicate 3. Phyllosilicate 4. Double-chain inosilicate
Codes: (a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
39. Muscovite’s phyllosilicate structure is best described as (o = octahedral, t = tetrahedral): (a) dioctahedral t-o-t with interlayer cation, dioctahedral t-o-t (b) dioctahedral t-o-t only (c) trioctahedral t-o-t with interlayer cation, trioctahedral t-o-t (d) dioctahedral t-o only
40. Which of these correctly expresses Miller indices for a crystal face? (a) (1 1 1) (b) (½ ½ ⅓) (c) (1a 1b 1c) (d) 1 1 1
41. An exsolution texture with a plagioclase host and KAlSi₃O₈-composition lamellae is called: (a) Perthite (b) Antiperthite (c) Myrmekite (d) Inverted pigeonite
42. Match the mineral in List-I with its chemical classification in List-II:
List-I: A. Sylvite B. Monazite C. Siderite D. [second entry, likely a different mineral]
List-II: 1. Carbonate 2. Phosphate 3. Hydroxide 4. Halide
43. The iridescent play of color (labradorescence) seen in plagioclase arises from: (a) polymorphism (b) closely spaced lamellae alternating between An-rich and An-poor compositions (c) exsolution lamellae of An₄₇–An₅₃ composition (d) a perthitic gap
44. Match the symmetry content in List-I with the corresponding crystal class in List-II:
List-I: A. 3A₄, 4A₃, 6A₂ B. 1A₄, 4A₂ C. 1A₂, 2m D. 1A₆, 6A₂
List-II: 4 2 2 / 4 3 2 / m m 2 / 6 2 2
45. The crystal form whose faces cut all crystallographic axes at differing lengths is called: (a) special form (b) general form (c) open form (d) closed form
46. Which statement about weathering processes is INCORRECT? (a) Hydration occurs when minerals absorb water molecules (b) Hydration occurs when an atom or ion gains an electron (c) Carbonation occurs when carbonates form (d) Chelation occurs when organic compounds remove metal ions
47. Match the volcano type in List-I with its characteristic in List-II:
List-I: A. Shield volcano B. Cinder cone volcano C. Stratovolcano D. Lava dome volcano
List-II: 1. Also called composite volcano 2. Flattened dome shape 3. Composed entirely of pyroclastics 4. Built by highly viscous lava
48. The average age of oceanic crust is approximately: (a) 20 Ma (b) 40 Ma (c) 80 Ma (d) 230 Ma
49. Under Airy’s isostatic model, doubling crustal column thickness would raise mountain height by roughly: (a) 80% (b) 40% (c) 30% (d) 20%
50. Match the bed form in List-I with its Froude number range in List-II:
List-I: A. Dunes with superimposed ripples B. Washed-out dunes C. Plane bed D. Ripples
List-II: 1. Fr < 1 2. Fr = 1 3. Fr > 1 4. Fr >> 1
51. Which pairing is INCORRECT? (a) Nunatak – ice-free mountain peak surrounded by glacier (b) Cirque – steep-walled depression in a mountain valley (c) Col – narrow, sharp-edged ridge within a mountain glacier (d) Fjord – U-shaped glacial trough below sea level
52. The lateral subsurface flow occurring where a permeable unit overlies a less permeable one is called: (a) overland flow (b) saturated overland flow (c) interflow (d) throughflow
53. Void ratio of a soil mass is defined as: (a) volume of voids / total volume (b) volume of voids / volume of solids (c) volume of solids / volume of voids (d) volume of solids / total volume
54. Which pairing is INCORRECT? (a) Annular drainage – forms on a dome with alternating resistant/weak layers (b) Parallel drainage – develops on horizontal, homogeneous crystalline rocks (c) Trellis drainage – develops on alternating weak/resistant tilted strata (d) Discordant drainage – forms where channels cut across geologic structure
55. Along which boundary do plates slide past one another without creating or consuming lithosphere? (a) Divergent (b) Convergent only (c) Transform only (d) Both convergent and transform
56. Stress arising from the weight of overlying rock in Earth’s crust is called: (a) confining pressure (b) tensile pressure (c) lithostatic pressure (d) deviatoric pressure
57. The separation of a competent layer during extension of incompetent rock, causing displacement, is termed: (a) pinch-and-swell structure (b) chocolate-tablet structure (c) extension fracture boudinage (d) tension gash
58. In the Orthoclase twin law, one of the twin elements is oriented essentially: (a) horizontal (b) inclined (c) vertical (d) parallel to the other
59. The Himalayan mountain belt originated from closure of which ocean? (a) Indian Ocean (b) Pacific Ocean (c) Tethys Ocean (d) Panthalassa Ocean
60. A continental margin produced by initial continental rifting that later develops into an ocean basin is called: (a) passive margin (b) active margin (c) nurtured margin (d) Andean-type margin
61. Palaeoseismicity studies focus on: (a) ancient geologic evidence of past seismic slip in the field (b) the relationship between earthquakes and buildings (c) mapping current earthquakes (d) seismic risk assessment
62. Regarding Earth’s interior, evaluate: 1. Seismic data indicate an average mantle depth of ~3100 km. 2. Inge Lehmann proposed the solid inner core concept. 3. Andrija Mohorovičić identified a sharp seismic-velocity contrast beneath the crust. 4. S-waves cannot travel through the outer core, indicating it is fluid. Which are correct?
63. Regarding the Richter scale, evaluate: 1. It was the first instrumental scale for earthquake magnitude. 2. It is based on energy released at the focus. 3. It is based on peak amplitude recorded on a seismograph. 4. It is based on the extent of damage. Which are correct?
64. Seismic wave velocities within Earth range approximately from: (a) 1–4 km/s (b) 2–8 km/s (c) 3–10 km/s (d) 2–13 km/s
65. What is the correct abundance order of dissolved salts in seawater? (a) NaCl > MgSO₄ > MgCl₂ > CaCO₃ > K₂SO₄ > CaSO₄ > MgBr₂ (b) NaCl > MgCl₂ > MgSO₄ > CaSO₄ > K₂SO₄ > CaCO₃ > MgBr₂ (c) NaCl > K₂SO₄ > MgSO₄ > MgCl₂ > CaCO₃ > CaSO₄ > MgBr₂ (d) NaCl > MgCl₂ > K₂SO₄ > CaSO₄ > CaCO₃ > MgBr₂ > MgSO₄
66. Which zone represents the typical lithological zone of the deep ocean floor? (a) Sublittoral (b) Bathyal (c) Abyssal (d) Littoral
67. Which error in aerial photography results from wind effects? (a) Drift (b) Scale distortion (c) Uncontrolled mosaicking (d) Radiometric distortion
68. In a GIS, determining a meteorological station’s position relative to a land-use polygon requires: (a) line-on-polygon overlay (b) polygon-on-polygon overlay (c) point-in-polygon overlay (d) line-on-line overlay
69. GPS satellites’ rubidium and cesium atomic clocks typically maintain timing accuracy of 1 part in ______.
70. Evaluate: 1. Passive microwave remote sensing can detect seepage zones, springs, faults, and soil moisture variation. 2. Water and vegetation have dielectric constants markedly different from other surface materials. Which statement(s) are correct?
71. Regarding specific yield of an aquifer, evaluate: 1. It is the ratio of gravity-drained water volume (after saturation) to total volume. 2. It is independent of grain size. Which are correct?
72. Intrinsic permeability of a porous medium depends on: 1. Size of the pore openings through which fluid flows. 2. Shape of the pore openings through which fluid flows. Choose the correct answer.
73. Regarding TDS and electrical conductivity of groundwater, evaluate: 1. EC measurement allows rapid TDS estimation. 2. Specific conductance is measured in microsiemens/cm. 3. Specific conductance decreases as temperature rises.
74. Regarding irrigation water, evaluate: 1. Sodium concentration matters for classifying irrigation water. 2. Sodium reduces soil permeability, affecting agriculture. Which is correct?
75. For an unconsolidated aquifer, evaluate: 1. Resistivity rises with increasing saturation. 2. Resistivity rises with increasing groundwater salinity. Which are correct?
76. Which statement about supergene copper deposits is INCORRECT? (a) The uppermost gossan zone consists of goethite/limonite with some clay (b) The zone of secondary enrichment lies below the water table, where copper content increases (c) The supergene-enriched zone grades gradually into protore (d) The zone between gossan and the water table causes sulfide reduction
77. Evaluate: 1. Algoma-type iron formations form in volcano-sedimentary sequences within greenstone belts. 2. Superior-type iron formations occur in marine strata of late Archean to Paleoproterozoic age. Which are correct?
78. Match the hydrocarbon/fuel type in List-I with its associated location in List-II (locations: Neyveli, Jaisalmer, Kalol, Kamte): A. Lignite B. Oil C. Bituminous coal D. Natural gas
79. Which parameter is NOT used in calculating Rock Mass Rating (RMR)? (a) Uniaxial compressive strength (b) Condition of discontinuities (c) Rock Quality Designation (RQD) (d) Slope deformability index
80. Favorable geological conditions for a dam site include: 1. Stable, resistant bedrock. 2. Foundation rock dipping downstream. 3. Foundation rock with a gentle upstream dip. 4. A broad valley with faulted strata. Choose the correct answer.
81. Freezing of water within a saturated rock may generate: (a) compressive stress (b) shear stress (c) tensile stress (d) torsional stress
82. Which parameter falls between the liquid limit and plastic limit? (a) Plasticity index (b) Liquidity index (c) Consistency index (d) Shrinkage index
83. In which dam type is most of the water load transferred to the valley abutments? (a) Earth dam (b) Arch dam (c) Buttress dam (d) Rock-fill dam
84. The Brazilian test measures: (a) crushing strength (b) tensile strength (c) transverse strength (d) shear strength
85. Which represents the most favorable condition for aligning a tunnel? (a) Along the axis of an anticline (b) Within a thick horizontal formation (c) Along the axis of a syncline (d) Horizontal, parallel to the dip direction
86. Regarding geothermal energy, evaluate: 1. Most exploited areas lie along plate boundaries. 2. Seasonal surface-temperature changes significantly affect this energy source. 3. Sites where groundwater circulates near magma serve as extraction centers. 4. A geothermal gradient near 25°C/km marks good potential zones. Which are correct?
87. Regarding CO₂ exchange with the oceans, evaluate: 1. It acidifies ocean water. 2. It makes ocean water more basic. 3. It aids marine organisms in forming carbonate shells. 4. It draws carbon down from seawater. Choose the correct answer.
88. Coastal groundwater is vulnerable to saltwater intrusion because: 1. Less-dense freshwater floats atop denser seawater, forming a lens. 2. Denser saltwater occurs at shallow depths. 3. Excessive pumping triggers saltwater intrusion. 4. Wave and tidal action cause mixing.
89. The organic matter content of a water body is expressed as: (a) dissolved oxygen (b) biochemical oxygen demand (c) chemical oxygen demand (d) total hardness
90. Locating an earthquake epicenter requires: 1. The time difference between P- and S-wave arrivals. 2. Peak amplitude data. 3. Time and amplitude readings from multiple seismograph stations.
91. The total radiant energy at all wavelengths striking a surface per unit area is called: (a) radiant energy (b) radiant flux (c) irradiance (d) radiant exitance
92. Regarding reflected light, evaluate: 1. Light vibrating in a single plane is termed polarized light. 2. Light reflected from water into a camera’s field of view is polarized. 3. Skylight is non-polarized since it scatters off particles. Which are correct?
93. In satellite imagery, all else being equal: (a) all sensors, regardless of altitude, show equal earth curvature (b) the highest-altitude sensor shows the least curvature (c) the lowest-altitude sensor shows the least curvature (d) the lowest-altitude sensor shows the greatest curvature
94. Elements heavier than Bi-209 form through which process? (a) s-process and pp-chain (b) r-process and CNO cycle (c) r-process and s-process (d) spallation of C and O nuclides
95. Which mineral’s formula can be expressed as a combination of nepheline and quartz? (a) Anorthoclase (b) Analcime (c) Antigorite (d) Albite
96. Halmyrolysis describes the process by which: (a) La is added to magma during crustal contamination (b) Mg is removed from magma during fractional crystallization (c) Fe ions are removed from river water as it enters the sea (d) Eu is removed during magmatic crystallization
97. Earth’s initial ⁸⁷Sr/⁸⁶Sr ratio has been estimated using which material? (a) Granite (b) Kimberlite (c) Meteorite (d) Basalt
98. Which element is chalcophile? (a) Oxygen (b) Lithium (c) Silver (d) Niobium
99. Which statement about geophysical exploration methods is INCORRECT? (a) The milligal is a unit of magnetic field (b) Pyrrhotite and magnetite can cause magnetic anomalies (c) The gravity method relies on density contrasts (d) Scintillometers can detect rock radioactivity
100. In mineral exploration, a significant geochemical anomaly is defined as: (a) indicator-element concentration below local threshold (b) indicator-element concentration within regional threshold (c) indicator-element concentration within local threshold (d) indicator-element concentration exceeding local threshold
Course Purchase Query 