1. Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948, ESI is applicable to employees drawing wages up to:
A) ₹15,000 per month B) ₹21,000 per month C) ₹25,000 per month D) ₹30,000 per month
2. The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 applies to non-seasonal factories employing:
A) 5 or more persons B) 10 or more persons C) 20 or more persons D) 50 or more persons
3. Under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (as amended), the duration of paid maternity leave for the first two children is:
A) 12 weeks B) 16 weeks C) 26 weeks D) 30 weeks
4. Under the Maternity Benefit Act, the mandatory provision of crèche facility applies to establishments employing:
A) 10 or more employees B) 30 or more employees C) 50 or more employees D) 100 or more employees
5. The Apprentices Act, 1961 primarily governs:
A) Regular employment contracts B) Training of apprentices in designated trades C) Trade union recognition D) Wage fixation
6. Under the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923, compensation is payable to a workman for:
A) Voluntary resignation B) Injury caused by accident arising out of and in the course of employment C) Retirement benefits D) Bonus disputes
7. Which body was established in India to recommend revisions in the pay, allowances, and pension structure of central government employees periodically?
A) National Commission on Labour B) Pay Commission C) Wage Board D) Labour Bureau
8. Wage Boards in India were primarily constituted to:
A) Fix minimum wages for unorganized sectors only B) Determine fair wage structures for specific industries such as newspapers and sugar C) Regulate trade union elections D) Enforce the Factories Act
9. The ILO’s tripartite structure consists of representatives from:
A) Government, employers, and workers B) Only government agencies C) Only trade unions D) Employers and NGOs only
10. The core ILO conventions primarily address:
A) Only wage fixation B) Fundamental principles and rights at work, such as freedom of association and elimination of forced labour C) Only occupational safety equipment standards D) Corporate tax policy
11. A “Works Committee” under Section 3 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is mandatory in establishments employing:
A) 50 or more workmen B) 100 or more workmen C) 20 or more workmen D) 500 or more workmen
12. The primary purpose of a Works Committee under the Industrial Disputes Act is to:
A) Negotiate wages exclusively B) Promote measures for securing amity and good relations between employer and workmen C) Replace trade unions entirely D) Conduct disciplinary inquiries
13. A “cooling-off period” in industrial relations refers to:
A) A period of paid leave for employees B) A mandatory waiting period before workers can legally strike, following notice C) A break during negotiations D) A holiday granted after a settlement
14. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, a strike or lockout in a “public utility service” requires prior notice of:
A) At least 6 weeks B) At least 14 days C) At least 3 days D) No notice required
15. A “check-off system” in industrial relations refers to:
A) Employer verification of employee attendance B) An arrangement where the employer deducts union dues directly from wages and remits them to the union C) A performance appraisal checklist D) A safety inspection process
16. A “closed shop” arrangement in unionization means:
A) Employees are not required to join any union B) Only union members can be hired for the job C) The shop is physically closed for renovation D) Union membership is optional after hiring
17. A “union shop” arrangement requires that:
A) New employees join the union within a specified period after being hired B) Union membership is prohibited C) Only non-union workers may be employed D) Union dues are voluntary
18. An “agency shop” arrangement requires non-union employees to:
A) Join the union immediately B) Pay a fee to the union for representation services even without membership C) Be terminated D) Receive lower wages than union members
19. Multi-employer or industry-level collective bargaining, as opposed to enterprise-level bargaining, is more prevalent in which type of economies?
A) Highly decentralized economies only B) Several European economies with coordinated bargaining systems C) Economies with no unions D) Economies without any labour laws
20. A “no-strike clause” in a collective bargaining agreement typically:
A) Guarantees the right to strike at any time B) Commits the union not to strike during the agreement’s term, often in exchange for grievance arbitration C) Bans all union activity D) Applies only to management
21. In negotiation theory, “BATNA” stands for:
A) Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement B) Basic Agreement Terms and Negotiation Approach C) Bargaining Agreement Timeline and Action D) Balanced Approach to Trade Negotiation Agreements
22. The “Zone of Possible Agreement” (ZOPA) in negotiation refers to:
A) The physical location of negotiations B) The overlap between each party’s minimum acceptable terms C) A legal jurisdiction for disputes D) The negotiation deadline
23. Distributive bargaining is best characterized as:
A) A win-win, collaborative approach expanding total value B) A win-lose, competitive approach over fixed resources C) Mediation by a neutral third party D) Informal, unstructured dialogue
24. Integrative bargaining differs from distributive bargaining in that it primarily seeks to:
A) Divide a fixed pie B) Expand the total value available to both parties through mutual gains C) Avoid any compromise D) Rely solely on positional demands
25. In dispute resolution, “mediation” differs from “arbitration” primarily because a mediator:
A) Issues a legally binding decision B) Facilitates dialogue without imposing a binding decision on the parties C) Represents one party exclusively D) Has judicial authority
26. French and Raven’s bases of social power include which of the following in addition to legitimate power?
A) Expert, referent, reward, and coercive power B) Only financial power C) Only positional power D) Only informational power
27. “Referent power,” per French and Raven, is based on:
A) Formal organizational position B) Followers’ identification with and admiration for the leader C) Control over punishments D) Specialized knowledge only
28. Organizational politics is best defined as:
A) Activities related exclusively to government relations B) Informal, unsanctioned efforts to influence organizational outcomes in one’s self-interest C) Formal decision-making processes only D) Union activities exclusively
29. “Impression management” in organizational behaviour refers to:
A) Formal performance documentation B) Efforts by individuals to control and shape how others perceive them C) Company branding strategy D) Customer relationship management
30. Occupational burnout, as defined by Maslach, comprises which three dimensions?
A) Emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and reduced personal accomplishment B) Salary, benefits, and job title C) Absenteeism, turnover, and tardiness D) Motivation, satisfaction, and commitment
31. The Job Demands-Resources (JD-R) model explains employee burnout and engagement as resulting from the balance between:
A) Salary and bonus B) Job demands and available job/personal resources C) Age and tenure D) Union membership and management support
32. Ergonomics in the workplace primarily focuses on:
A) Financial planning for employees B) Designing tasks, equipment, and environments to fit human capabilities and reduce strain/injury C) Marketing job openings D) Union negotiation tactics
33. Which term describes work-related musculoskeletal disorders caused by repetitive motion, such as carpal tunnel syndrome?
A) Occupational stress disorder B) Repetitive strain injury (RSI) C) Seasonal affective disorder D) Cognitive overload syndrome
34. A “safety audit” in occupational health and safety management primarily involves:
A) Reviewing financial statements B) Systematic evaluation of workplace safety practices and compliance C) Employee satisfaction surveys D) Recruitment process review
35. The concept of “presenteeism” refers to:
A) Employees being physically present but not fully productive due to illness or other issues B) Perfect attendance records C) Employees who are frequently absent D) High employee engagement scores
36. Total Quality Management (TQM), when applied to HR, primarily emphasizes:
A) One-time quality checks B) Continuous improvement and employee involvement in quality across all processes C) Outsourcing quality control D) Eliminating employee feedback mechanisms
37. “Kaizen,” a Japanese management philosophy relevant to HR practices, emphasizes:
A) Radical one-time organizational overhaul B) Continuous, incremental improvement involving all employees C) Strict top-down control only D) Elimination of employee suggestions
38. Quality circles, as an employee involvement technique, typically consist of:
A) Senior management only B) Small groups of employees who voluntarily meet to identify and solve work-related problems C) External consultants D) Union representatives exclusively
39. Six Sigma methodology, when applied to HR processes, primarily aims to:
A) Increase process variation B) Reduce defects and process variation to near-zero error rates C) Eliminate all quality metrics D) Increase employee turnover intentionally
40. The DMAIC framework used in Six Sigma stands for:
A) Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control B) Design, Manage, Act, Implement, Close C) Develop, Monitor, Assess, Inspect, Complete D) Direct, Motivate, Align, Innovate, Conclude
41. Halsey premium plan, a wage incentive scheme, rewards workers by:
A) Sharing a percentage of time saved compared to standard time B) Paying a flat rate regardless of output C) Deducting wages for time saved D) Paying only for defective output
42. The Rowan premium plan differs from the Halsey plan primarily in:
A) How the bonus/premium percentage is calculated relative to time saved B) Eliminating bonuses entirely C) Applying only to salaried employees D) Requiring union approval for every bonus
43. Taylor’s Differential Piece Rate System pays workers:
A) The same rate regardless of output level B) A higher piece rate for output at or above a standard, and a lower rate below it C) A fixed monthly salary D) Only overtime wages
44. The National Floor Level Minimum Wage in India (as recommended) is intended to:
A) Replace all state minimum wages immediately with binding force B) Serve as a non-statutory benchmark below which no state should fix minimum wages C) Apply only to government employees D) Set maximum wage limits
45. “Tripartism” in Indian industrial relations refers to consultative mechanisms involving:
A) Only employers and government B) Government, employers, and worker representatives jointly addressing labour issues C) Only trade unions and courts D) Only international agencies
46. The Indian Labour Conference is an example of which type of forum?
A) A judicial body B) A tripartite consultative body on labour policy C) A trade union federation D) An employer association only
47. A “works council,” common in several European countries, primarily functions to:
A) Replace trade unions entirely B) Represent employee interests in consultation with management on workplace matters, distinct from collective bargaining C) Set national minimum wages D) Handle only safety inspections
48. “Social dialogue,” as promoted by the ILO, refers to:
A) Casual workplace conversation B) Negotiation, consultation, and information exchange between governments, employers, and workers on economic/social policy C) Customer feedback mechanisms D) Internal company newsletters
49. The gig economy classification debate primarily centers on whether platform workers should be classified as:
A) Only full-time employees B) Independent contractors versus employees, affecting benefits and protections C) Government employees D) Unpaid volunteers
50. “Misclassification” of employees as independent contractors is a legal concern primarily because it may:
A) Increase employer tax liability unnecessarily B) Deny workers statutory benefits and protections they would otherwise be entitled to C) Have no legal consequences D) Only affect part-time workers
51. A “non-compete clause” in an employment contract typically restricts a former employee from:
A) Taking any future job B) Working for a competing business or starting a competing venture for a specified period/region C) Discussing their salary D) Claiming unemployment benefits
52. “Garden leave” refers to a practice where:
A) Employees take unpaid leave voluntarily B) A departing employee remains on payroll but is asked not to work during the notice period, often to protect confidential information C) Employees are granted extended paid vacation D) Employees are placed on probation
53. Superannuation, in the context of employee benefits, generally refers to:
A) A performance bonus B) A retirement benefit scheme, often employer-funded C) A maternity benefit D) A relocation allowance
54. The Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI) Scheme in India primarily provides:
A) Health insurance for dependents B) A lump-sum life insurance benefit to nominees upon the death of a covered employee C) Unemployment insurance D) Disability pension only
55. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) provisions under the Companies Act, 2013 in India mandate qualifying companies to spend a minimum of their average net profits on CSR activities equal to:
A) 1% B) 2% C) 5% D) 10%
56. “Employee volunteering programs,” often linked to CSR, primarily aim to:
A) Replace paid work with unpaid labour B) Encourage employees to contribute time/skills to community or social causes, often during work hours C) Reduce employee benefits D) Increase working hours without pay
57. A “sabbatical” in HR policy typically refers to:
A) A mandatory unpaid suspension for misconduct B) An extended, often paid or partially paid, leave for personal/professional development after a period of service C) A daily lunch break D) A performance improvement plan
58. Data privacy concerns in HR technology primarily relate to the collection, storage, and use of:
A) Only publicly available company information B) Sensitive employee personal data, requiring compliance with data protection regulations C) Product pricing data D) Customer purchase history
59. GDPR-style data protection principles, increasingly relevant to global HR data management, emphasize:
A) Unlimited data collection without consent B) Data minimization, purpose limitation, and informed consent C) Permanent data retention regardless of necessity D) No accountability requirements
60. Algorithmic decision-making transparency in HR (e.g., in hiring or performance evaluation systems) is increasingly required to ensure:
A) Faster processing speed only B) Fairness, explainability, and accountability of automated decisions C) Lower implementation costs D) Reduced employee access to information
61. A Human Resource Information System (HRIS) primarily serves to:
A) Replace all HR personnel B) Integrate HR data and processes into a centralized digital system for efficient management C) Handle only payroll functions D) Conduct external audits only
62. “e-HRM” (electronic Human Resource Management) refers to:
A) Manual paper-based HR processes B) The application of IT/web-based technologies to support HR functions and processes C) Only email communication within HR D) Outsourcing HR to external vendors exclusively
63. Which statistical measure indicates the average deviation of data points from the mean, commonly used in HR compensation analysis?
A) Median B) Standard deviation C) Mode D) Range only
64. In HR statistics, a t-test is primarily used to:
A) Measure internal consistency of a survey B) Compare the means of two groups to determine if they are statistically different C) Reduce the number of variables D) Rank job evaluations
65. ANOVA (Analysis of Variance) in HR research is primarily used to:
A) Compare means across three or more groups simultaneously B) Measure correlation between two variables only C) Determine sample size D) Calculate turnover rate
66. A “correlation coefficient” close to +1 between two HR variables indicates:
A) No relationship B) A strong negative relationship C) A strong positive relationship D) An inverse relationship
67. Generational cohort theory in workforce studies often distinguishes Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials, and which more recent cohort entering the workforce?
A) The Silent Generation B) Generation Z C) The Lost Generation D) The Greatest Generation
68. A common workplace challenge associated with multigenerational workforces is:
A) Complete uniformity in work preferences B) Differing communication styles, values, and expectations across age cohorts C) Absence of any generational differences D) Reduced need for flexible policies
69. “Reverse discrimination” as a contested concept in DEI (Diversity, Equity, and Inclusion) debates refers to claims that:
A) Majority group members are unaffected by diversity policies B) Diversity or affirmative-type policies may disadvantage members of historically majority/advantaged groups C) DEI policies always favour majority groups D) There is no debate on this topic
70. “Unconscious bias” training in organizations primarily aims to help employees:
A) Eliminate all bias instantly through a single session B) Recognize implicit biases that may influence decisions, to reduce their impact C) Increase discrimination awareness for legal compliance only D) Replace formal HR policies entirely
71. A “DEI scorecard” or diversity metrics dashboard typically tracks:
A) Only financial performance B) Representation, pay equity, promotion rates, and inclusion indicators across demographic groups C) Customer satisfaction only D) Product quality metrics
72. “Intersectionality,” a concept increasingly applied in DEI discussions, refers to:
A) The overlap of different organizational departments B) How overlapping social identities (e.g., race, gender, class) combine to create unique experiences of discrimination or privilege C) Cross-functional team structures D) International business operations
73. Employer branding metrics such as “employee Net Promoter Score” (eNPS) primarily measure:
A) Customer loyalty B) The likelihood that employees would recommend their organization as a place to work C) Product sales D) Stock price performance
74. “Glassdoor-style” employer review platforms primarily influence recruitment by:
A) Having no impact on candidate perceptions B) Shaping public perception of an employer’s reputation, culture, and compensation practices C) Replacing formal interviews D) Setting legal wage standards
75. The concept of “employee value proposition” (EVP) refers to:
A) The stock value assigned to employees B) The unique set of benefits, culture, and opportunities an employer offers in exchange for employee skills/commitment C) The market value of a company’s products D) An employee’s individual net worth
76. A “skills-based organization,” as an emerging HR trend, shifts hiring and workforce planning focus from job titles to:
A) Seniority and tenure exclusively B) Specific skills and competencies individuals possess, regardless of formal job roles C) Educational credentials only D) Physical location only
77. “Internal talent marketplaces” in organizations primarily enable:
A) External-only recruitment B) Employees to discover and apply for internal gigs, projects, or roles based on skills, improving mobility C) Elimination of internal job postings D) Mandatory job rotation without employee choice
78. “Boomerang employees” refers to individuals who:
A) Never leave the organization B) Leave an organization and are later rehired by the same organization C) Are terminated permanently D) Work exclusively as contractors
79. A “stay interview,” as distinct from an exit interview, is conducted to:
A) Understand why an employee is leaving B) Proactively understand what motivates current employees to remain and identify retention risks C) Finalize severance terms D) Conduct final performance reviews
80. “Job crafting” refers to the process by which employees:
A) Have no influence over their job design B) Proactively redefine and reshape aspects of their own job tasks, relationships, or perceptions C) Are assigned entirely new roles by HR D) Follow rigid job descriptions without deviation
81. The concept of “psychological ownership” at work refers to employees feeling:
A) Legal ownership of company stock only B) A sense of possessiveness and personal connection toward their work, tasks, or organization C) Obligated by contract terms only D) Indifferent toward organizational outcomes
82. “Servant leadership,” as a leadership philosophy, emphasizes that leaders should primarily:
A) Prioritize their own authority and status B) Prioritize serving and developing the needs of followers and the broader community C) Focus solely on shareholder returns D) Avoid any interaction with subordinates
83. “Authentic leadership” theory emphasizes leaders acting with:
A) Manipulation and concealment of true self B) Self-awareness, transparency, and consistency between values and actions C) Strict conformity to organizational politics only D) Complete detachment from followers
84. “Toxic leadership” is characterized by behaviours that:
A) Always improve organizational performance B) Harm followers’ wellbeing and organizational functioning through abusive, self-serving, or destructive conduct C) Have no measurable negative effects D) Are always legally actionable
85. “Onboarding” effectiveness is often measured by which long-term HR metric?
A) Time to fill only B) New hire retention and time-to-productivity C) Number of job postings D) Interview panel size
86. A “buddy system” in onboarding pairs a new employee with:
A) The CEO exclusively B) An experienced peer who provides informal guidance and support during transition C) An external consultant D) A customer representative
87. “Preboarding” refers to activities conducted:
A) After an employee’s first year B) Between the acceptance of a job offer and the employee’s first official day C) Only during exit D) During annual performance reviews
88. The concept of “employer of choice” refers to organizations that:
A) Have the lowest wages in the industry B) Are widely recognized and preferred as attractive places to work due to culture, benefits, and reputation C) Only hire senior executives D) Avoid any employee benefits
89. “Total rewards” as an HR framework typically encompasses:
A) Compensation only B) Compensation, benefits, well-being, recognition, and development/career opportunities combined C) Only stock options D) Only retirement benefits
90. “Recognition programs” in employee engagement strategies primarily aim to:
A) Replace all monetary compensation B) Acknowledge and reinforce desired employee behaviours and contributions, boosting morale C) Reduce employee morale intentionally D) Eliminate performance appraisals
91. The concept of “psychological contract breach” occurs when:
A) A written contract is formally terminated B) An employee perceives that the organization has failed to fulfill implicit, unwritten promises or expectations C) An employee resigns voluntarily D) A union contract expires
92. “Whistleblower protection” policies in organizations are designed to:
A) Punish employees who report misconduct B) Protect employees from retaliation when they report unethical, illegal, or unsafe practices C) Encourage silence about wrongdoing D) Apply only to senior executives
93. An organizational “code of conduct” primarily serves to:
A) Replace all legal requirements B) Establish expected standards of ethical behaviour and conduct for employees C) Set compensation levels D) Define job descriptions only
94. “Conflict of interest” policies in HR governance primarily address situations where:
A) An employee’s personal interests could improperly influence their professional judgment or duties B) Two employees disagree over work methods C) A department exceeds its budget D) An employee takes annual leave
95. The “stakeholder theory” of organizational governance, relevant to ethical HR practice, argues that organizations should consider the interests of:
A) Shareholders exclusively B) A broad range of stakeholders, including employees, customers, communities, and shareholders C) Only government regulators D) Only competitors
96. “Ethical fading” in organizational decision-making refers to:
A) The gradual disappearance of ethical considerations from a decision as other factors dominate C) Increased focus on ethics over time D) Mandatory ethics training
B) A formal ethics audit process
97. A “whistleblower hotline” is typically part of an organization’s:
A) Marketing strategy B) Ethics and compliance program enabling confidential reporting of misconduct C) Recruitment advertising D) Customer service system
98. “Corporate governance” in the context of HR oversight typically involves:
A) Only financial reporting B) Systems and processes ensuring accountability, fairness, and transparency in organizational decision-making, including HR matters C) Only marketing decisions D) Only IT infrastructure
99. The concept of “sunset clause” in a collective bargaining agreement or policy refers to:
A) A clause with no expiration B) A provision specifying that the agreement or clause automatically expires after a set period unless renewed C) A clause effective only during evening shifts D) A mandatory retirement clause
100. “Industrial sociology” as an academic discipline primarily studies:
A) Only financial markets B) Social relationships, structures, and behaviour within industrial and work settings C) Only mechanical engineering processes D) Only consumer behaviour
Course Purchase Query 