UPSC 2026 PRELIM GS Paper-I — Questions with Answers and Explanations

Question 1

Consider the following assertion: In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 d) 3

Answer: (d) 3

Explanation: The hypothesis that the Indus and Ganga systems were once connected during the Pleistocene rests on biogeographical evidence. The most compelling of this is the presence of Platanista gangetica, the same freshwater dolphin species, in both river systems — which strongly suggests a former hydrological link between the two. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda is a hymn listing rivers, composed long after the Pleistocene, and carries no geological value as evidence of ancient drainage changes. Robert Bruce Foote is remembered for discovering India’s first Palaeolithic tool at Pallavaram in 1863, not for any survey of the Sutlej or Yamuna rivers. Only statement 3 serves as a valid scientific basis for the assertion.

Question 2

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

a) The meditation of the Buddha b) The Buddha’s First Sermon c) The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana d) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Answer: (a) The meditation of the Buddha

Explanation: Early Buddhist art at sites like Bharhut, Sanchi, and Amaravati followed an aniconic tradition where the Buddha was never depicted in human form. Instead, symbolic representations were used for key events in his life. An empty seat or throne (vajrasana) represented the moment of his enlightenment and meditation under the Bodhi tree. The Dharmachakra (wheel) symbolised the First Sermon at Sarnath, the stupa stood for the Mahaparinibbana, and a riderless horse represented the Great Renunciation. The empty seat is often confused with the Mahaparinibbana symbol, but it distinctly refers to meditation and enlightenment.

Question 3

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

1. Vitasta : Chenab
2. Asikni : Jhelum
3. Parushni : Ravi
4. Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 3 and 4 c) 3 only d) 4 only

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation: The Rigvedic names of the Punjab rivers are as follows: Vitasta corresponds to the Jhelum, Asikni to the Chenab, Parushni to the Ravi, Vipas to the Beas, and Shutudri to the Sutlej. Pairs 1 and 2 have swapped Jhelum and Chenab, which is a very common error. Yavyavati is generally identified with the Zhob river, not the Beas. Only Parushni-Ravi is correctly matched. Candidates often confuse Vitasta and Asikni because of their similar-sounding Sanskrit names.

Question 4

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The Amaravati Mahachaitya was indeed situated in the lower Krishna valley in present-day Andhra Pradesh and flourished under the Satavahana and Ikshvaku rulers. Its limestone sculptural style had a deep and lasting influence on South Indian temple art as well as on Buddhist art in Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia. However, Amaravati was actually the largest stupa in India, surpassing Sanchi in scale — not second to it. Statement 2 is therefore incorrect. The common trap here is assuming Sanchi is the largest because it is more widely known.

Question 5

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?

1. Senguttuvan : Chera
2. Udiyanjeral : Chola
3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: In Sangam-age South India, Senguttuvan was a celebrated Chera king, the hero of the Silappadikaram, and pair 1 is correctly matched. Udiyanjeral was also a Chera king, famous in the Purananuru for his generosity in feeding both armies at Kurukshetra — the suffix “jeral” or “cheral” is itself a marker of Chera lineage, making pair 2 incorrectly matched with the Chola dynasty. Nedunjeliyan was a great Pandya king known for his victory at Talaiyalanganam, so pair 3 is correctly matched. Only pair 2 is wrong.

Question 6

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
4. The supporters of M. N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: After Bose was re-elected Congress President at Tripuri in 1939, Gandhi publicly withdrew his confidence in him. The Communists, followers of M.N. Roy, and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan and Narendra Dev all chose to preserve Congress unity rather than back Bose against Gandhi, leaving him without support. This isolation forced his resignation and the creation of the Forward Bloc. Statement 2 is not quite accurate as a causal factor — the issue was not general Congress Left disunity but specifically the refusal of these named groups to back Bose. Statements 1, 3, and 4 correctly identify the factors.

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: After Dalhousie annexed Awadh in February 1856, the British conducted a Summary Settlement that treated taluqdars as recent interlopers with no legitimate hereditary rights, and proceeded to settle revenue directly with village zamindars and peasants, bypassing the taluqdars entirely. Critically, the taluqdars were also disarmed and their forts demolished — not allowed to retain their arms and forts as statement 1 claims. This disarmament was a major grievance that fuelled the 1857 uprising in Awadh. Statements 2 and 3 are correct; statement 1 is wrong.

Question 8

Consider the following assertion: The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Government of India Act 1919 retained the separate electorates introduced for Muslims under the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 and extended them further to Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, Europeans, and Indian Christians. Historians argue that the British design behind this was to fragment Indian nationalist unity by institutionalising communal identities in the electoral system. Over time, deprived and minority communities came to see separate representation as a protective tool, as seen in the later debate around the Communal Award and the Poona Pact. All three statements together explain why communal political alliances were built into the very structure of the 1919 reforms.

Question 9

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

a) Agra Gharana b) Gwalior Gharana c) Patiala Gharana d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Answer: (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Explanation: Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992), recipient of the Padma Vibhushan, was the most celebrated twentieth-century exponent of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana, which was founded by Ustad Alladiya Khan. Though born in Karnataka, his musical training came from Manji Khan and Bhurji Khan, both sons of Alladiya Khan, firmly placing him in the Jaipur-Atrauli lineage. The common trap is the geographic association — candidates assume a Karnataka musician must belong to a Carnatic tradition or to Gwalior, the oldest Hindustani gharana. The Agra Gharana is associated with Faiyaz Khan and the Patiala Gharana with Bade Ghulam Ali Khan.

Question 10

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate?

a) Rigveda b) Atharvaveda c) Ashtadhyayi d) Arthashastra

Answer: (b) Atharvaveda

Explanation: The Atharvaveda is the Vedic text most closely associated with agriculture, domestic rituals, healing, and fertility, and it is here that the term kshetra-patni — meaning the mistress or lady of the field — appears in an agrarian ritual context. The Rigveda is primarily a collection of cosmological hymns. Panini’s Ashtadhyayi is a treatise on Sanskrit grammar. Kautilya’s Arthashastra deals with statecraft and political economy. None of these other texts would be the source of a ritual agricultural term of this nature.

Question 11

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

a) Nat Bhairavi b) Kamavardhini c) Hanumatodi d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Explanation: Dheera Shankarabharanam is the 29th Melakarta raga in the Carnatic system and uses all seven natural (shuddha) swaras — equivalent to the Western major scale. This is exactly the swara composition of Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music, which is also the shuddha-swara thaat. Among the other options, Hanumatodi corresponds to Bhairavi, Kamavardhini to Puriya Dhanashri, and Nat Bhairavi to Asavari or Kafi. The Bilawal-Shankarabharanam parallel is a standard reference in Indian classical music literature.

Question 12

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness b) Providing support to Indian importers c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Answer: (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness

Explanation: The Hilton-Young Commission recommended pegging the rupee at 1 shilling 6 pence to the pound sterling — an artificially high exchange rate. The British rationale was to ensure the smooth flow of Home Charges (pensions, military costs, debt servicing) back to Britain and to protect India’s creditworthiness in London’s capital markets. The overvalued rupee actually hurt Indian exporters, including cotton producers, and benefited British imports into India. Options (b) and (c) are therefore contrary to the actual effect of the policy.

Question 13

Consider the following statements: I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver. The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Emergence of urban life
2. Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Historians cite the references to coins in Pali literature and the large hoards of silver punch-marked coins discovered at archaeological sites as twin evidence for two parallel developments in northern India around the sixth century BCE. First, they indicate the Second Urbanisation — the rise of mahajanapada cities and urban economic life. Second, they mark the transition from a barter and cattle-wealth economy to a money-based economy. Both associations are well-established in the historiography and form part of the standard curriculum on early Indian economic history.

Question 14

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 only d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation: The Nagara style is identified by its curvilinear (rekha-prasada) shikhara, characteristic of north Indian temple architecture. The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh (early sixth century, Gupta period) is the earliest surviving example of a Nagara shikhara. The Huchimalligudi Temple at Aihole is notable as the only temple at Aihole with a north-Indian rekha-nagara shikhara, and it introduced the shukanasa projection. By contrast, the Malegitti Shivalaya at Badami and the Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal both follow the Dravida style with its pyramidal vimana tower. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Question 15

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

a) Deva (gods) b) Yaksha (demi-gods) c) Manushya (humans) d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Answer: (b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

Explanation: Jain cosmology recognises four gatis or states of existence through which a soul transmigrates: Deva (gods), Manushya (humans), Tiryancha (animals and plants), and Naraki (hell-beings). Yakshas are not a separate gati — they are a subcategory within the Deva class and serve as attendant deities to the Tirthankaras. They appear frequently in Jain iconography, which may mislead candidates into assuming they constitute a distinct category of existence, but they do not. Yaksha is therefore the correct answer.

Question 16

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

a) A joyous folk dance b) Buddha in a meditative pose c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Answer: (a) A joyous folk dance

Explanation: The Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh are fifth-sixth century CE Buddhist rock-cut viharas containing murals stylistically similar to those at Ajanta. The well-known painting in Cave 4 (Rang Mahal) depicts a circle of dancers and musicians and is identified as a Hallisa-lasya — a joyous group or folk dance known from Sanskrit dramaturgy. It is considered a rare secular scene in Indian mural art and is distinct from religious iconography. The name “Hallisa” might suggest a Krishna-related Rasa-mandala theme, but the painting depicts the dance form itself rather than any mythological narrative.

Question 17

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595–596).
2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: All three statements reflect established findings in the history of mathematics. The Mankani copper plates from Gujarat (AD 595–596) contain the earliest unambiguous epigraphic use of the decimal place-value system in India. By the ninth century, this notation had spread widely enough to appear across inscriptions throughout the subcontinent. Independently, Sanskrit inscriptions from Southeast Asia — including the Sambor inscription of Cambodia (683 CE) — show place-value numerals in the seventh century, actually predating their general use in India itself.

Question 18

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns: I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations, have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: The widespread presence of spindle-whorls without spinning wheels shows that thread was spun by hand using drop spindles, a slow and labour-intensive domestic activity — inference 1 is valid. The standardised graduated weights and measurement scales found at Harappan sites reflect systematic, scientific thinking about trade and measurement — inference 2 is also valid. However, Statement III actually points in the opposite direction from inference 3: well-built private houses with individual wells and bathing platforms indicate differentiated private property, not a common-property system. Inference 3 cannot be drawn from the evidence.

Question 19

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress. b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers. c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents. d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Answer: (c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

Explanation: The Eka (Unity) Movement of 1921–22 took place in the Hardoi, Bahraich, Sitapur, and Barabanki districts of Awadh (not Varanasi and Mirzapur as option (d) states) and was a peasant agitation led by Madari Pasi against rents charged at rates far above recorded levels, along with forced labour and irregular cesses. The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, led by Vallabhbhai Patel in Surat district (part of Gujarat, not Saurashtra), was a refusal to pay a revised and enhanced land revenue assessment. Option (c) correctly captures this distinction.

Question 20

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period: I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells. Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Statement I about well-based irrigation expanding agriculture into the Punjab-Haryana plains is supported by Rigvedic references to the ashma-chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (water-lifting bucket), which together form a well-irrigation mechanism (supporting item 1). Statement II about draught-animal power for water-lifting is supported by the well-attested pre-Rigvedic use of oxen for ploughing and hauling, since the same animals would have provided power for water-lifting devices (supporting item 3). Item 2, referring to axes and sickles, describes harvesting implements and has no bearing on irrigation. Hence 1 and 3 only.

Question 21

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

a) Ecuador b) Peru c) Bolivia d) Colombia

Answer: (a) Ecuador

Explanation: Tungurahua, whose name means “Throat of Fire” in Quechua, is an active stratovolcano located in the Cordillera Oriental of the Andes in Ecuador, approximately 140 kilometres south of Quito. It was inscribed as a UNESCO Global Geopark in 2025. The Andes contain active volcanoes across multiple countries, so care is needed in placing each: Cotopaxi and Chimborazo are also Ecuadorian; Misti is in Peru; Sajama in Bolivia; and Nevado del Ruiz in Colombia. Tungurahua’s most recent major eruptive cycle ran from 1999 to 2016.

Question 22

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: Madhav National Park is located entirely within Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh — it shares no boundary with Rajasthan, so statement 3 is incorrect. In 2025 it was designated India’s 58th Tiger Reserve, making statement 1 correct. Within the park, Sakhya Sagar lake was declared a Ramsar Site in 2022, confirming statement 2. The confusion with Rajasthan likely arises from association with nearby reserves like Ranthambore or Kuno, both of which are in Rajasthan, but Madhav lies firmly in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 23

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a humid tropical maritime climate with small seasonal temperature variation. Their location in the Bay of Bengal exposes them to both the Southwest monsoon from May to September and the retreating Northeast monsoon from October to December, giving the islands annual rainfall well above 3000 mm. Maximum precipitation falls between May and December — not December to May as statement 3 claims. The wet and dry seasons are reversed in statement 3, which is the standard trap in this question type.

Question 24

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: The Peninsular Block is a geologically ancient and stable landmass, but parts of its western coast have undergone submergence due to faulting, creating the drowned coastline visible as the Konkan-Malabar coast with its estuaries and offshore islands. The peninsula also contains residual mountain ranges — remnants of much older folded systems — including the Aravallis, Nallamala, Velikonda, and Mahendragiri hills. Deep V-shaped valleys carved by fast-flowing rivers are a feature of youthful mountain rivers like those in the Himalayas, not the mature, gentle-gradient peninsular rivers. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 25

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India: I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: The Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015, explicitly pursues port-led economic growth through port modernisation, connectivity enhancement, and port-linked industrialisation. The documented growth in coastal shipping traffic and India’s improving position in logistics performance indices validates Statement I’s approach, making relationship 1 correct. Sagarmala 2.0 takes the original vision forward by anchoring it in the Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 frameworks, representing an extension rather than a contradiction of Statement I — making relationship 2 correct and relationship 3 wrong.

Question 26

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):

1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation: Rhynchostylis retusa, known as the Foxtail orchid or Kopou phul in Assamese, grows on tree trunks and branches as an epiphyte, so statement 1 is correct. It is not endemic to North-east India — its range extends across South Asia, Southeast Asia, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, Indonesia, the Philippines, and southern China, making statement 2 wrong. It is officially recognised as the State flower of both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, confirming statement 3. The answer is 1 and 3.

Question 27

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

a) They acted as army fortresses. b) They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles. c) They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles. d) They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation: Moidams are the mound-burial structures of the Tai-Ahom dynasty, located at Charaideo in Assam. They served as royal and noble funerary monuments — hollow vaulted chambers housing the remains of Ahom kings along with their possessions and sometimes attendants, reflecting Tai cosmological beliefs and ancestor worship. The Charaideo Moidams were inscribed as India’s 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site in July 2024 during the 46th session of the World Heritage Committee held in New Delhi. They had no function as fortresses, recreation grounds, or military training centres.

Question 28

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”. Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct?

a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Answer: (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

Explanation: FAO’s Blue Transformation roadmap (2022–2030) is built around the Four Betters, which are the organisation’s overarching strategic framework pillars applied to aquatic food systems: Better Production, Better Nutrition, Better Environment, and Better Life. These were reiterated at UNOC-3 in Nice, France in June 2025. The other options introduce terms like “better ocean,” “better coral reefs,” and “better mangroves,” which are not part of FAO’s official four-part framing.

Question 29

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.
2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Lake Turkana is the world’s largest permanent desert lake and the world’s largest alkaline lake, located in northern Kenya with its northern tip extending into Ethiopia. Statement 2 is wrong on both counts — the lake is in Kenya, not South Sudan, and lies near the East African Rift, not the Sahara. The lake is popularly called the Jade Sea because of the blue-green algae that colour its waters. Its national parks were inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1997. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Question 30

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Answer: (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

Explanation: The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project in Meghalaya became India’s first Plan Vivo-certified REDD+ initiative, validated in 2013. It was implemented by a local community welfare society in partnership with Community Forestry International, covering sacred groves and community-managed forests across ten Khasi himas. The project generates verified carbon credits while strengthening customary forest governance. The Sikkim Mamley-Kamrang project came later as a subsequent community effort, and the ICFRE-ICIMOD work is a research initiative rather than a Plan Vivo-certified project.

Question 31

Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change: I. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (*) No correct option

Explanation: Statement I is correct — India’s LT-LEDS, submitted at COP27 in 2022, is the formal long-term framework for the 2070 net-zero goal. Statement II is broadly correct — BUR-4 (December 2024) reported roughly a 7.93% drop in emissions in 2020 over 2019, largely due to COVID-19 lockdowns. Statement III is factually wrong — climate-resilient development as understood under the IPCC and UNFCCC is a long-term, adaptive, equity-centred process and does not depend categorically on quick short-term emission cuts. Regarding the relationships: relationship 1 is wrong because a one-off pandemic-induced dip does not empirically validate a long-term strategic framework. Relationship 2 is correct — Statement I’s multi-decade horizon is directly at odds with Statement III’s insistence on short-term urgency. Relationship 3 is wrong — Statement III undermines rather than complements Statement I. Since only relationship 2 is correct and no option lists “2 only,” the question appears defective. UPSC may award marks to all or drop the question.

Question 32

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: The Western Hoolock Gibbon is found in Hollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam and in other forests of Northeast India, and is listed as Endangered by the IUCN — statement 1 is correct. Gibbons are the most specialised brachiators among primates, using their long arms and flexible wrist joints to swing through the forest canopy at high speed — statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is entirely wrong: gibbons are small, lightweight lesser apes weighing 6–9 kg, bearing no resemblance to the large, heavily built gorillas. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 33

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: Mangroves are halophytes — salt-tolerant plants adapted to tidal mudflats — whose prop roots and pneumatophores dissipate wave and tidal energy and trap sediment, providing coastal protection. They do not store freshwater and their saline habitat is unsuitable for paddy cultivation, making statement 1 wrong. Their roots tolerate salt rather than filtering it out to create freshwater zones, making statement 2 a misconception. Statement 3 correctly reflects the dual rationale for protection: mangroves serve as natural bio-shields against cyclones and storm surges (as demonstrated during the 1999 Odisha super-cyclone and the 2004 tsunami) while also providing fuelwood, fisheries, honey, and ecotourism livelihoods.

Question 34

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?

1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: Vizhinjam International Seaport in Thiruvananthapuram, commissioned in 2024 and operated by Adani Ports, is India’s first dedicated container trans-shipment port. Its natural draft of approximately 20 metres and its location within 10 nautical miles of the major east-west international shipping lane allow it to handle the largest container vessels. Its primary strategic purpose is to reclaim trans-shipment cargo currently routed through Colombo, Singapore, and Salalah, thereby retaining freight revenue within India. It is not a domestic-only cargo hub or a cruise tourism destination. Only statement 3 captures the actual structural shift.

Question 35

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

It has an antecedent drainage system. It flows through three countries. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation. It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following: a) Brahmaputra b) Indus c) Sutlej d) Teesta

Answer: (c) Sutlej

Explanation: The Sutlej is an antecedent river that predates the Himalayan uplift and has carved its course through the rising mountains. It originates near Rakshastal in Tibet and flows through China (Tibet), India, and Pakistan — three countries. It is a major irrigation river, particularly through the Bhakra-Nangal system and the Punjab canal network. The distinguishing clue is that it does not form distributaries. The Indus forms a delta with distributaries near the Arabian Sea. The Brahmaputra forms multiple channels and distributaries in Assam. The Teesta does not originate in Tibet proper and does not flow through three countries. Only the Sutlej satisfies all four conditions.

Question 36

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh shares boundaries with eight Indian States — Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar — plus the NCT of Delhi, making it the leader in the number of interstate boundaries. Statement 1 is correct. Rajasthan does not share the longest international border — West Bengal shares approximately 2,217 km with Bangladesh, which is longer than Rajasthan’s roughly 1,070 km border with Pakistan. Statement 2 is incorrect. Sikkim does border only West Bengal among Indian states, but it is not the only state in this position — Meghalaya also shares its land border with only one Indian state, Assam. Statement 3 is therefore also incorrect. Statements 2 and 3 are not correct, giving (c).

Question 37

Which of the following statements about the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: Amur Falcons breed in Siberia, Mongolia, and northern China and congregate in enormous numbers at Doyang Lake in Nagaland every October-November during their migration to southern Africa. The dramatic transformation of the communities near Pangti from hunting the falcons to protecting them after 2012 is a celebrated example of local conservation enabling the protection of an international migratory species — statement 1 is correct. The birds navigate using innate migratory instincts, not tracking technologies — statement 2 is wrong. They are transit migrants passing through India, not permanent residents — statement 3 is also wrong.

Question 38

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: The Rainfed Area Development component of the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture, launched in 2014–15, promotes Integrated Farming Systems that combine crops with horticulture, livestock, fisheries, agroforestry, and apiculture. The aim is to enhance farm productivity, diversify income sources, and reduce vulnerability to climate variability for farmers in rainfed areas. The initiative explicitly discourages monoculture and is targeted at unirrigated areas, not at irrigated rice cultivation. Only statement 3 reflects the actual objective.

Question 39

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: OEKO-TEX Standard 100 certification certifies that a textile product has been tested and found free of harmful substances according to internationally harmonised criteria. For Eri Silk — Assam’s eco-friendly peace silk, reared without killing the silkworm — obtaining this certification (secured by the Central Silk Board) validates its compliance with safety and environmental standards. This opens access to premium eco-conscious markets in Europe and North America where chemical residue standards are strictly enforced. Both statements describe accurate and complementary benefits of the certification, and both are correct.

Question 40

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

1. Bahrain
2. Syria
3. Qatar
4. Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation: The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. Ships from countries located on the Persian Gulf must pass through Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean. Bahrain and Qatar are both Persian Gulf states, so their maritime traffic must cross Hormuz. Syria has its coastline on the Eastern Mediterranean and its ships reach the world’s oceans via the Suez Canal. Egypt also accesses the ocean through the Suez Canal and the Red Sea. Neither Syria nor Egypt has any connection to the Persian Gulf. The correct answer is Bahrain and Qatar — option (b).

Question 41

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (INTERPOL Notice) — List II (Description) A. Silver Notice — 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies B. Blue Notice — 2. To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation C. Black Notice — 3. To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety D. Green Notice — 4. To identify and trace criminal assets

a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer: (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Explanation: INTERPOL’s Silver Notice, introduced in January 2025, is used to identify and trace criminal assets — A-4. The Blue Notice is issued to gather additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities related to a criminal investigation — B-2. The Black Notice is used to seek information on unidentified bodies — C-1. The Green Notice provides a warning about a person whose criminal activities make them a possible threat to public safety — D-3. The sequence A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 corresponds to option (c).

Question 42

Which of the following statements with reference to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Under the NIRANTAR platform launched by MoEFCC in 2024, the Ecosystem Survey and Analysis vertical is led by the Botanical Survey of India in Kolkata — statement 1 is correct. The Capacity Development Support vertical is anchored by the Indian Institute of Forest Management in Bhopal — statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Research and Management of Ecosystem Services vertical is led by the Wildlife Institute of India or ICFRE, not by the Central Zoo Authority, which has a regulatory function over zoos rather than a research mandate in ecosystem services.

Question 43

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 4 c) 3 and 4 d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 4

Explanation: During Chancellor Friedrich Merz’s visit to India in January 2026, confirmed outcomes included an MoU on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation, and the establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific — so statements 2 and 3 represent actual outcomes and are correct. There was no MoU between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg, and no Honorary Consulate of Germany was opened in Lucknow. Statements 1 and 4 are therefore not correct outcomes of the visit, giving answer (b).

Question 44

Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
2. It is India’s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: DHRUV64 was unveiled by MeitY in 2025 as India’s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core RISC-V microprocessor. It is the third silicon-validated chip produced under the Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) Programme, which was launched in 2022 with the goal of making India a hub for indigenous microprocessor design for strategic, automotive, and IoT applications. Both statements are factually accurate, and the answer is (c).

Question 45

The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?

1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: BIS notified IS 19445:2025 as India’s first national standard for bomb disposal suits and systems, confirming statement 1. The standard was developed by DRDO’s Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory in Chandigarh and will allow standardised testing protocols, improving interoperability of equipment across central armed police forces, state police, and the armed forces — statement 2 is correct. The standard was developed indigenously and there was no collaboration with any Russian institute — statement 3 is wrong.

Question 46

‘X’, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify ‘X’:

a) Michel H. Devoret b) Richard Robson c) John Clarke d) Joel Mokyr

Answer: (c) John Clarke

Explanation: John Clarke, born in Cambridge, United Kingdom in 1942, is a professor of physics at the University of California, Berkeley. He shared the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics with Michel H. Devoret and John M. Martinis for work on macroscopic quantum-mechanical tunnelling and energy quantisation in electric circuits. Both clues — UK-born and professor at an American university — are satisfied by Clarke alone. Devoret was born in France, not the UK. Richard Robson, a 2025 Chemistry laureate, is UK-born but is a professor at the University of Melbourne in Australia, not an American university. Joel Mokyr, the 2025 Economics laureate, was born in the Netherlands.

Question 47

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
3. There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 only

Explanation: The four Grand Slams — Australian Open, Roland-Garros, Wimbledon, and the US Open — coordinate through the Grand Slam Board, which provides a shared governance and partnership framework. Statement 1 is therefore correct. Entry to Grand Slams is not open to all internationally ranked players above age 14 — there are specific age-eligibility rules under WTA and ITF regulations that restrict younger players’ participation. Statement 2 is wrong. Wild cards are granted by each individual tournament (typically eight per singles main draw) but there is no global cap on how many wild cards any one player may receive across their career. Statement 3 is also wrong. Only statement 1 is correct.

Question 48

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Answer: (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: Under India’s Semiconductor Mission, the approved projects are located as follows: the Tata-PSMC fab is at Dholera, Gujarat; Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test (TSAT) is at Jagiroad, Assam; CG Power in partnership with Renesas and STARS is at Sanand, Gujarat; SicSem’s silicon carbide unit is at Bhubaneswar, Odisha. The HCL-Foxconn joint venture, approved in 2025, is located at Jewar in Uttar Pradesh — not in Madhya Pradesh as stated in option (c). That pairing is therefore the incorrectly matched one.

Question 49

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the ‘Bharat Forecast System,’ is/are correct?

1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The Bharat Forecast System (BFS), launched in May 2025 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, is India’s first indigenously developed high-resolution global weather model with a 6 km grid that generates forecasts down to the panchayat-cluster or block level — statement 1 is correct. It was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) in Pune, in collaboration with IMD and NCMRWF, not by IIT Delhi — statement 2 is wrong. The answer is (a).

Question 50

Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’:

1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Boong is a Manipuri-language coming-of-age film directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. It won the BAFTA Award for Best Children’s and Family Film at the 79th British Academy Film Awards and is reported as the first Indian film to win a BAFTA in this category. All three statements are correct.

Question 51

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Blockchain ledgers maintain immutable, visible records that authorised participants can access without alteration risk — statement 1 is correct. The distributed ledger is replicated across nodes on a network that synchronise within seconds — statement 2 is correct. Cryptographic hashing combined with consensus mechanisms makes recorded blocks effectively tamper-proof once accepted — statement 4 is correct. Statement 3 is technically inaccurate: a consortium blockchain is a type of permissioned blockchain governed collectively by a group of organisations — a “hybrid blockchain” is the correct term for a blend of public and private elements. Hence 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Question 52

An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn’t keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

a) Dropshipping Model b) Affiliate Revenue Model c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model d) Agency Revenue Model

Answer: (a) Dropshipping Model

Explanation: The described model — seller controls pricing, holds no inventory, and passes orders to a third-party supplier who ships directly to the customer — is the standard definition of dropshipping. The affiliate model earns commissions by referring customers to other sellers. The transaction fee model charges a fee for each transaction processed on a platform. The agency model involves matching buyers and sellers for a service fee. The combination of price control, zero inventory, and third-party fulfilment is the defining characteristic of dropshipping.

Question 53

Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy c) Access, Usage, and Quality d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Answer: (c) Access, Usage, and Quality

Explanation: The RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index, first published in 2021, is a composite measure built on three sub-indices: Access (weighted at 35%), Usage (45%), and Quality (20%). The Access sub-index captures the availability of financial services; Usage captures depth of engagement; and Quality captures financial literacy and consumer protection outcomes. None of the other options matches the official architecture of the FI-Index.

Question 54

Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India’s ‘Open Network for Digital Commerce’ (ONDC) initiative?

a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions b) To replace private e-commerce players c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Answer: (c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks

Explanation: ONDC is an open-protocol initiative incubated by DPIIT that separates buyers, sellers, and logistics from any single platform by enabling interoperability across different e-commerce networks. Its purpose is to democratise digital commerce and reduce the stranglehold of large platforms on buyers and sellers. It does not aim to give the government control over transactions, replace private players, or mandate any specific payment method. Option (c) correctly reflects the policy intent.

Question 55

Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency. b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet. c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another. d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Answer: (d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Explanation: In UPI transactions, settlement liability rests with the user’s bank since it involves movements between bank accounts. However, the Digital Rupee (e-Rupee) is a direct liability of the Reserve Bank of India — it is sovereign money held in a digital wallet, equivalent to holding physical currency, and does not constitute a bank deposit. The liability therefore rests with the RBI, not with users or their banks. Statement (d) is the one that is not correct. Options (a), (b), and (c) all correctly distinguish the nature of UPI and Digital Rupee transactions.

Question 56

Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24×7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: RWA tokenisation converts ownership rights or economic interests in physical or financial assets into blockchain-based digital tokens — statement 1 is correct. Because these tokens trade on distributed ledgers that operate around the clock, they provide 24×7 market access and enable fractional ownership, expanding financial inclusion — statement 2 is correct. For Indian retail investors, tokenisation can open up asset classes that were previously accessible only to institutional or wealthy investors, such as fractional real estate or pre-IPO equity — statement 3 is also correct. All three statements are accurate.

Question 57

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

a) Green Bond b) Social Bond c) Sustainability Bond d) Sovereign Bond

Answer: (c) Sustainability Bond

Explanation: Under the International Capital Market Association’s bond principles, a Sustainability Bond is specifically defined as one whose proceeds are used to finance or refinance a combination of both green (environmental) and social projects. A Green Bond funds only environmental projects. A Social Bond funds only social projects. A Sovereign Bond refers to the issuer — a national government — rather than to the use of proceeds. The defining feature in the question is the combination of both environmental and social use, which points to a Sustainability Bond.

Question 58

Which of the following statements about M1xchange’s role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: M1xchange is one of the RBI-licensed Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platforms. Its function is to allow MSMEs to get their trade receivables — invoices and bills of exchange — discounted by financiers through a competitive bidding process, thereby improving their working capital liquidity. Statement 2 is correct. M1xchange does not extend collateral-based loans (that is a function of banks and NBFCs), and it is not a credit rating agency (which is a separate category of institution licensed by SEBI). Only statement 2 is accurate.

Question 59

Which one of the following best describes the ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in the context of fiscal policy?

a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment c) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Answer: (b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

Explanation: The crowding-out effect describes the mechanism by which increased government borrowing to finance a fiscal deficit raises interest rates in the loanable funds market. Higher interest rates raise the cost of borrowing for private firms, which reduces private investment and sometimes private consumption. Option (a) describes the opposite phenomenon — crowding-in — which occurs when productive public spending raises returns on private investment. Option (c) misdescribes tax effects. Option (d) contradicts basic macroeconomic theory about fiscal multipliers. Option (b) is the textbook definition.

Question 60

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 3 only c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: REEs are a group of 17 metallic elements — the 15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium — so statement 4 calling them a set of 13 is wrong. Statement 1 is correct: REEs are essential components in AI chips, robotics, electric vehicles, and space technology. Statement 2 is wrong: while China dominates global REE mining at roughly 60–70%, India is not the second-largest producer — the United States (through the Mountain Pass mine) holds that position, followed by Myanmar and Australia. Statement 3 is correct: the Union Cabinet approved the National Critical Mineral Mission in January 2025 to build self-reliance in this sector. Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Question 61

Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

1. ‘Aviation Hull Insurance’ covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Aviation Hull Insurance covers the physical structure of the aircraft — the fuselage, engines, and all on-board equipment — against damage or total loss. Statement 1 is correct. The Montreal Convention of 1999, ratified by India in 2009, establishes a two-tier system of strict liability for passenger death and injury: up to a defined SDR threshold, airlines are strictly liable without requiring families to prove negligence; beyond that amount, the airline must show it was not at fault. Statement 2 is correct. Both statements are accurate, so the answer is (c).

Question 62

Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Crowdfunding involves pooling small contributions from many individuals through online platforms or social networks to fund a specific venture or project — this aligns with SEBI’s consultation paper definition and statement 1 is correct. For SMEs, crowdfunding offers an alternative to bank lending and stock market listing, reducing the cost of capital and bypassing the intensive due diligence, collateral requirements, and documentation involved in conventional financing — statement 2 is also correct. Both statements are accurate.

Question 63

With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

Sl. No. | Committee | Objective | Organization under which it was formed

1. R. N. Malhotra Committee | Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India | Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
2. L. C. Gupta Committee | Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India | Securities and Exchange Board of India
3. Urjit R. Patel Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector | Reserve Bank of India
4. Y. H. Malegam Committee | Reforming the regulatory framework governing the Microfinance Industry | Reserve Bank of India

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation: Row 1 is wrong on the parent organisation — the Malhotra Committee (1993) was set up by the Government of India under the Ministry of Finance; IRDAI itself was created only in 1999 as a result of that committee’s recommendations. Row 2 is correctly matched — the L.C. Gupta Committee was formed by SEBI in 1996 to prepare the roadmap for derivatives trading. Row 3 is wrong — the Urjit Patel Committee (2014) under the RBI revised India’s monetary policy framework and moved it toward inflation targeting; it had nothing to do with bank lending to the housing sector. Row 4 is correctly matched — the Y.H. Malegam Committee under the RBI (2011) reformed the regulatory framework for microfinance following the Andhra Pradesh crisis. Only rows 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Question 64

Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:

1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 4 only d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 4

Explanation: NBFCs are prohibited from accepting demand deposits — statement 1 is correct. Not all NBFCs are required to register with the RBI — housing finance companies are regulated separately (now by RBI/NHB), and certain other categories fall under SEBI or IRDAI — statement 2 is wrong. NBFCs are not part of the payments and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves — statement 3 is wrong. DICGC deposit insurance covers only scheduled commercial banks, cooperative banks, and regional rural banks — NBFC depositors are excluded — statement 4 is correct. Statements 1 and 4 are the correct ones.

Question 65

Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Both the global MPI published by UNDP and OPHI and India’s national MPI published by NITI Aayog use the Alkire-Foster methodology — statement 1 is correct. India’s MPI includes 12 indicators across the three dimensions of health, education, and standard of living, compared to UNDP’s 10 — statement 2 is correct. The two additional indicators in India’s MPI are Maternal Health and Bank Account, which are India-specific additions not present in UNDP’s global MPI. Since these are not common to both, statement 3 is wrong. Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.

Question 66

Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Genetic medicines — including gene therapy, mRNA therapies, siRNA, and CRISPR-based approaches — work by replacing defective genes, silencing harmful ones, or introducing corrective genetic material to address the underlying cause of a disease. Statement 1 is correct. These therapies are delivered using biological or synthetic vectors: engineered viruses such as adeno-associated virus (AAV) and lentiviruses, or lipid nanoparticles as used in mRNA COVID-19 vaccines. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is wrong — genetic medicines target specific genes or sequences and do not rewrite or alter the entire DNA sequence of a cell, which would be neither feasible nor therapeutic.

Question 67

Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: At their core, LLMs are next-token predictors that output a probability distribution over possible next tokens and select from among the highest-probability candidates — statement 1 is correct. Training an LLM involves minimising a loss function through gradient descent, which is a form of mathematical optimisation to reduce prediction error across vast training corpora — statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is wrong: LLMs absorb biases present in their training data and can reproduce or even amplify those biases. Eliminating bias from LLM outputs remains an active and unsolved research challenge.

Question 68

Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Stealth aircraft reduce their radar cross-section through shaping — minimising flat surfaces that reflect radar signals — and by coating surfaces with Radar Absorbing Materials that absorb rather than reflect radar energy. Statement 1 is correct. Despite stealth design, these aircraft can be detected using low-frequency radars (VHF/UHF bands), bistatic radar arrangements, and over-the-horizon systems that exploit resonance and other effects at specific frequencies. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is wrong: metamaterials used in stealth applications are designed to absorb electromagnetic radiation or guide it around an object — the objective is to reduce scattering, not increase it.

Question 69

Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Modern flight recorders — commonly known as black boxes though they are actually bright orange — combine the Cockpit Voice Recorder and the Flight Data Recorder in a crash-survivable unit that records audio and hundreds of flight parameters. Statement 2 is correct. The memory module housing is constructed from stainless steel or titanium with thermal insulation to withstand crash and fire conditions. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong: the Underwater Locator Beacon attached to black boxes emits an ultrasonic acoustic ping at 37.5 kHz frequency to assist searchers working underwater. It uses sound, not light — light is ineffective at depth and would be irrelevant for underwater search purposes.

Question 70

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Green hydrogen is produced by splitting water through electrolysis powered by renewable energy sources such as solar or wind. No carbon is released in this process, making it genuinely zero-emission. Statement 2 is correct. Hydrogen produced from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture is classified as blue hydrogen, not green. Statement 1 is therefore wrong. The National Green Hydrogen Mission (2023) targets 5 million metric tonnes of green hydrogen production annually by 2030 and aims to abate nearly 50 MMT of greenhouse gas emissions per year. Statement 3 is correct. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Question 71

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme:

1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: IN-SPACe was established in 2020 under the Department of Space as an autonomous single-window body to authorise, promote, and enable private sector participation in India’s space activities. Statement 1 is correct. In May 2024, Agnikul Cosmos successfully flew its Agnibaan SOrTeD vehicle using the Agnilet engine — the world’s first fully 3D-printed, single-piece semi-cryogenic rocket engine. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Skyroot Aerospace is developing the Vikram series of rockets using solid and cryogenic propulsion designed by Skyroot itself; the liquid and cryogenic stages of GSLV are developed by ISRO, not Skyroot. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 72

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Drone swarms operate using mesh networking architectures where each drone can communicate directly with neighbouring drones, enabling collective behaviour and distributed decision-making without dependence on a central command channel. Statement 2 is correct. GPS spoofing — transmitting false navigation signals to mislead drones about their position — is a recognised counter-swarm electronic warfare technique alongside jamming and directed energy weapons. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong: swarms typically communicate using sub-6 GHz radio frequencies, Wi-Fi, LTE/5G, or proprietary bands. The Terahertz band suffers severe atmospheric absorption over short distances and remains at an experimental stage; it is not used in operational drone swarm communications.

Question 73

Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: GenomeIndia is funded by the Department of Biotechnology and implemented by a consortium of research institutions led by IISc Bengaluru. Statement 2 is correct. The project’s primary goal is to sequence the whole genomes of approximately 10,000 individuals representing India’s diverse population groups, building a comprehensive national reference catalogue of genetic variation. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong: GenomeIndia is an entirely independent Indian initiative launched in 2020 and has no formal connection to the international Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003.

Question 74

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits.
2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The National Quantum Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet in April 2023 with a total outlay of Rs 6,003 crore over eight years. It targets the development of intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 to 1,000 physical qubits — statement 1 is correct. The mission also establishes four Thematic Hubs focused on quantum computing, quantum communication, quantum sensing and metrology, and quantum materials and devices, each anchored at a leading academic or national R&D institution — statement 2 is correct. Both statements align with the official mission document from the Department of Science and Technology.

Question 75

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways — statement 1 is wrong. Matsya-6000 is the manned submersible being developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology to carry three persons to a depth of 6,000 metres in the ocean — statement 2 is correct. Samudrayaan is the name of India’s manned deep-ocean exploration programme and is a specific project under the Deep Ocean Mission — statement 3 is correct. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Question 76

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions? a) Esprit de corps b) Equity c) Accountability d) Delegation

Answer: (c) Accountability

Explanation: Mr. X’s decision to report malpractice to the vigilance authority and halt a compromised contract — despite facing pressure from vested interests — is a clear demonstration of accountability. Accountability in public administration means that a public servant is answerable for the exercise of authority, the use of resources, and the outcomes of decisions affecting the public. Esprit de corps refers to team cohesion and morale; equity refers to impartial and fair treatment of citizens; delegation refers to the assignment of authority and tasks to subordinates. None of these captures the act of standing up against wrongdoing in service of citizen welfare, which is the essence of accountability.

Question 77

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.

As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process? a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Effective mediation in such situations requires first acknowledging the cultural and identity concerns of the affected community before proposing technical solutions — statement 1 reflects sound conflict resolution practice. Bringing together all stakeholders through a structured dialogue platform allows for de-escalation and the building of trust — statement 3 is constructive. An independent, transparent ESIA shared with all sides enables evidence-based decision-making and reduces suspicion — statement 4 is appropriate. Statement 2, which proposes overriding tribal cultural concerns as those of a “small group,” contradicts the Forest Rights Act 2006, PESA, the principle of free prior and informed consent, and basic administrative ethics. It would escalate rather than resolve the conflict.

Question 78

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation: Option 1 — immediate public disclosure of unproven allegations — is premature and could expose Ms. X and the government to legal liability for defaming the contractor before any verification. Option 2 — unilaterally removing the contractor from the shortlist — bypasses the project committee’s authority, violates due process, and is based on unverified information. Option 3 strikes the correct balance: reporting the concern in a limited and confidential manner to an oversight or vigilance committee preserves institutional integrity, ensures that the information reaches an appropriate check-and-balance mechanism, and upholds due process and reputational rights. This is consistent with whistleblower protection principles and the ethics of public service without succumbing to Mr. Y’s improper instruction.

Question 79

‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below: a) ‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom. b) The view of ‘Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct. c) The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct. d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Answer: (d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Explanation: Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution expressly defines “law” to include any ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, and also any custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. Y correctly identified this inclusive definition. X’s interpretation, which accepts the inclusion of ordinances and regulations but rejects the inclusion of custom and usage, is inconsistent with the bare text of Article 13(3)(a). The inclusion of custom was specifically intended to ensure that no pre-constitutional customary practice inconsistent with fundamental rights could be sustained. Only Y’s view is correct.

Question 80

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? a) All three statements are correct. b) There is no correct statement. c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3. d) There is only one correct statement.

Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.

Explanation: All three statements are factually wrong. Article 393 of the Constitution expressly provides that “This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India,” making statement 1 wrong. Article 395 repeals both the Indian Independence Act 1947 and the Government of India Act 1935 along with enactments amending or supplementing the latter — making statement 2 wrong. Article 394 explicitly names 26th January 1950 as the date on which the remaining provisions of the Constitution come into force, making statement 3 wrong. Since none of the three statements is correct, the answer is (b).

Question 81

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong in one key detail: the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in 2016, not 2018. Statement 2 is correct: the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign), launched in December 2015, specifically targets accessibility across the three verticals of built environment, transport systems, and ICT. Statement 3 is wrong on the ministry: NDFDC functions under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities within the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Only statement 2 is correct.

Question 82

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2. b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3. c) There is only one correct statement. d) All three statements are correct.

Answer: (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong: the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram is governed by the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, not the Fifth. The Fifth Schedule covers Scheduled Areas in other states. Statement 2 is correct: Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act exempts members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified areas of the Northeast and Ladakh from tax on income earned in those areas. Statement 3 is correct: Articles 243D(3) and 243D(4) mandate reservation for SC and ST women in panchayats. Two statements — 2 and 3 — are correct, and the option identifying two correct statements that include statement 2 is the right answer.

Question 83

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? a) All the three statements are correct. b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2. c) There is only one correct statement. d) There is no correct statement.

Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 have the definitions reversed. Starred questions are those for which an oral answer is desired — the member hopes to follow up with supplementary questions during Question Hour. Unstarred questions are those for which a written reply is sought and the answer is simply laid on the Table of the House without oral discussion. Statement 1 is therefore wrong and statement 2 is also wrong. Statement 3 is correct: by parliamentary procedure, no supplementary question may be asked on an unstarred question since it is answered only in writing. Only one statement is correct.

Question 84

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? a) There are four correct statements. b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2. c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1. d) There is no correct statement.

Answer: (d) There is no correct statement.

Explanation: All four statements contain errors. The Committee has 30 members — 20 elected by the Lok Sabha and 10 by the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 reverses this ratio. The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from among the Lok Sabha members of the Committee, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha — statement 1 is wrong. No Minister of any kind is eligible to be a member of this Committee — the rules make no exception for the Minister of Social Justice. Statement 3 is wrong. The term of office is one year, not two — statement 4 is also wrong. There is no correct statement.

Question 85

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

1. It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced in 2025, aims to develop a comprehensive multi-layered national security shield that integrates air defence, ballistic missile defence, and offensive aerial capabilities. Statement 1 is correct. The mission is designed to enable rapid, precise, and powerful responses to threats, thereby reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy and deterrence posture. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 overstates the mission’s scope: the target is coverage of critical strategic, civilian, and religious sites by 2035, not “all public places of India.” Statement 3 is an exaggeration and is wrong.

Question 86

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

1. ‘Maitri Setu’, built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 only d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong because the endpoints are reversed: Maitri Setu spans the Feni river and connects Sabroom in South Tripura, India with Ramgarh in Bangladesh — not the other way around. Statement 2 is wrong: the Jhulaghat suspension bridge crosses the Kali (Mahakali) river and connects Pithoragarh district in India with Baitadi district in Nepal, not Myanmar. Statement 3 is correct: the Mechi bridge connects Panitanki Bypass in West Bengal, India with Kakarvitta in Nepal on the NH-327B corridor. Only statement 3 is correct.

Question 87

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) 2 only

Answer: (*) No correct option

Explanation: Statement 1 is inaccurate as printed: Section 173 of the BNSS codifies Zero FIR only for cognizable offences, not for non-cognizable ones, which are handled separately under Section 174. The phrasing “cognizable/non-cognizable” in statement 1 is therefore wrong. Statement 2 is also inaccurate: a preliminary enquiry under BNSS is permitted only for cognizable offences punishable with three to less than seven years of imprisonment, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of DSP; this is not a general feature of all Zero FIRs. Statement 3 is wrong: electronic communication of information is permitted but not obligatory, and the informant must in any case sign the information within three days. All three statements are incorrect as framed. No given option matches “none of the above” for this question. UPSC is likely to award marks to all or drop the question.

Question 88

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry

1. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance
3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation: None of the three rows is fully correct. Row 1 has the wrong ministry: CEIB is under the Department of Revenue within the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Row 2 has the wrong ministry: SFIO is under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance. Row 3 has the wrong function: the stated function — “to preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy” — is the mandate of the Central Vigilance Commission. The CBI is an investigation agency for corruption, economic offences, and special crimes. All three rows contain errors, so the answer is (d).

Question 89

Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

1. Employment Policy Convention
2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 2 and 4 b) 1 and 2 c) 3 and 4 only d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (*) No correct option

Explanation: India has ratified the ILO Employment Policy Convention (C122), the Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (C105, ratified in 2000), and all four 1949 Geneva Conventions including the Fourth Geneva Convention on civilian protection (ratified 1950). India has not ratified the 1990 International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families, nor the 1961 Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness. The strictly correct unratified set from the list is therefore 3 and 5 only. No given option lists exactly 3 and 5. Option (d) incorrectly includes the Fourth Geneva Convention, which India has ratified. The question is defective as printed. UPSC may award marks to all or drop it.

Question 90

Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

1. The Summit’s intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress.
2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong: the three foundational Sutras of the AI Impact Summit 2026 were People, Planet, and Progress — not “Planning.” Statement 2 is wrong: the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI was acknowledged as a voluntary and non-binding framework, not a binding one; binding commitments were deliberately avoided to respect sovereign discretion. Statement 3 is correct: the New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was organised around seven Chakras or pillars, which included AI for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI, among others. Only statement 3 is correct.

Question 91

Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
2. IMT Trilateral Highway
3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation: The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project connects Kolkata to Sittwe port in Myanmar and then by inland waterway and road to Mizoram, with Myanmar being an ASEAN member. The India-Myanmar-Thailand (IMT) Trilateral Highway, linking Moreh in India to Mae Sot in Thailand through Myanmar, is a flagship India-ASEAN connectivity initiative. Both projects involve ASEAN member countries and are classified under India-ASEAN cooperation frameworks. The Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line connects India with Bangladesh, which is not an ASEAN member and falls under BBIN or bilateral cooperation, not ASEAN. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 92

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Project Supported by India) — List II (Country) A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project — 1. Maldives B. Restoration of Stor Palace — 2. Afghanistan C. District Hospital at Dickoya — 3. Bhutan D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies — 4. Sri Lanka

a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Answer: (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Explanation: The Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project (720 MW) was constructed with Indian assistance in Bhutan — A-3. The Stor Palace in Kabul was restored with Indian support — B-2, Afghanistan. The District Hospital at Dickoya was built by India in the Central Province of Sri Lanka — C-4. The Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies in Addu City was constructed with Indian assistance in the Maldives — D-1. The correct sequence is A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1, which is option (b).

Question 93

Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
3. Akula Class Submarine

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 1 only d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation: Su-30 MKI fighter jets are manufactured in India under licence by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited at its Nashik division, with progressive indigenisation of components. Statement 1 is correct. T-90 Bhishma tanks, including the MK-III variant, are produced under licence at the Heavy Vehicles Factory in Avadi by Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited. Statement 2 is correct. The Akula-class nuclear-powered attack submarines — such as INS Chakra — are built in Russian shipyards and leased to India; they are not manufactured in India. Statement 3 is wrong. The answer is 1 and 2.

Question 94

Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

1. The ‘Colombo Process’ is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
2. The ‘Abu Dhabi Dialogue’ is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
3. The ‘Global Forum for Migration and Development’, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 2 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong: the Colombo Process, initiated in 2003 and facilitated by the International Organisation for Migration, is a regional consultative process among Asian labour-sending countries that operates on a voluntary and non-binding basis. It does not produce binding decisions of any kind. Statement 2 is correct: the Abu Dhabi Dialogue (established 2008) is a voluntary, non-binding forum bringing together Colombo Process states and major destination countries in the Gulf and Asia to discuss contractual labour mobility. Statement 3 is correct: the Global Forum on Migration and Development was established in 2007 following a proposal by then-UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan and operates as a voluntary, informal, state-led consultative forum with non-binding outcomes. Only 2 and 3 are correct.

Question 95

Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

1. World Food Programme
2. United Nations Children’s Fund
3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
4. International Labour Organisation

How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Answer: (a) 1

Explanation: Of the four organisations listed, only UNHCR has received the Nobel Peace Prize twice — in 1954 and again in 1981. UNICEF was awarded it once, in 1965. The ILO received it once, in 1969. The World Food Programme received it once, in 2020. UNHCR is in fact the only UN agency to have been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize on two separate occasions. The answer is therefore 1.

Question 96

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) — List II (Period of Operation) A. UNMIL — 1. 2007–2010 B. MINURCAT — 2. 2002–2005 C. MINUSTAH — 3. 2003–2018 D. UNMISET — 4. 2004–2017

a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Answer: (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Explanation: UNMIL (UN Mission in Liberia) operated from 2003 to 2018 — A-3. MINURCAT (UN Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad) operated from 2007 to 2010 — B-1. MINUSTAH (UN Stabilization Mission in Haiti) operated from 2004 to 2017 — C-4. UNMISET (UN Mission of Support in East Timor) operated from 2002 to 2005 — D-2. The correct sequence A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 corresponds to option (b).

Question 97

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) — List II (Location) A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory — 1. NOIDA B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre — 2. Bengaluru C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate — 3. Colombo D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility — 4. Thimphu

a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer: (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Explanation: The BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory is located in Thimphu/Paro, Bhutan — A-4. The BIMSTEC Energy Centre is housed at the Central Power Research Institute in Bengaluru, India — B-2. The BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate is located at NCMRWF in NOIDA, India — C-1. The BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility is being set up in Colombo, Sri Lanka — D-3. The correct sequence A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 corresponds to option (c).

Question 98

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Option | Indian Army Corps | Headquarters a) 3 Corps | Dimapur b) 4 Corps | Tezpur c) 14 Corps | Leh d) 33 Corps | Srinagar

Answer: (d) 33 Corps : Srinagar

Explanation: The 33 Corps, also known as the Trishakti Corps, is headquartered at Sukna near Siliguri in West Bengal, responsible for the Sikkim sector and the Siliguri Corridor. It is not based at Srinagar. The corps headquartered at Srinagar is the 15 Corps, known as the Chinar Corps, which is responsible for the Kashmir Valley. The other pairings in options (a), (b), and (c) are correct: 3 Corps (Spear Corps) is at Dimapur; 4 Corps (Gajraj Corps) is at Tezpur; and 14 Corps (Fire and Fury Corps) is at Leh, responsible for Ladakh. Option (d) is the incorrectly matched pair.

Question 99

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong: the Revamped RGSA was approved by the Union Cabinet for implementation from 1 April 2022 to 31 March 2026, aligned with the Fifteenth Finance Commission cycle, not from 1 April 2021. Statement 2 is correct: the scheme’s central objective is to build the governance capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals through inclusive local governance. Statement 3 is wrong: Central funding is shared in the ratio 60:40 for most states, 90:10 for northeastern and hilly states, and 100% only for Union Territories without a legislature — it is not 100% for all states and UTs. Only statement 2 is correct.

Question 100

Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

1. Belarus
2. Poland
3. Germany
4. Switzerland

Select the answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1 and 4 only c) 2 and 3 d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation: Poland joined the European Union in 2004 and Germany has been a member since the founding of the European Economic Community in 1957. Belarus is not an EU member — it is part of the Eurasian Economic Union alongside Russia and is currently subject to EU sanctions. Switzerland has consistently chosen to remain outside the EU despite close geographic and economic ties; it maintains a relationship through bilateral treaties and participates in the Schengen Area and EFTA but is not an EU member. Only Poland and Germany, options 2 and 3, are EU members.