Match the following Chief Ministers of Assam (List–I) with their corresponding periods of service (List–II):
List–I (Chief Ministers)
a. Bishnuram Medhi
b. Mahendra Mohan Choudhury
c. Bimala Prasad Chaliha
d. Gopinath Bordoloi
List–II (Tenure Periods)
28th Dec, 1957 – 6th Nov, 1970
26th Jan, 1950 – 5th Aug, 1950
9th Aug, 1950 – 27th Dec, 1957
11th Nov, 1970 – 30th Jan, 1972
✅ Correct Matching:
Chief Minister Period of Service Code
a. Bishnuram Medhi 3. 9th Aug, 1950 – 27th Dec, 1957 a → 3
b. Mahendra Mohan Choudhury 4. 11th Nov, 1970 – 30th Jan, 1972 b → 4
c. Bimala Prasad Chaliha 1. 28th Dec, 1957 – 6th Nov, 1970 c → 1
d. Gopinath Bordoloi 2. 26th Jan, 1950 – 5th Aug, 1950 d → 2
🎯 Correct Option: (B)
a → 3, b → 4, c → 1, d → 2
📘 Explanation:
Gopinath Bordoloi was the first Chief Minister of Assam, serving until August 1950.
Bishnuram Medhi succeeded him and served until the end of 1957.
Bimala Prasad Chaliha then served from 1957 to 1970.
Mahendra Mohan Choudhury held office from 1970 to 1972.
25.
Which of the following best explains why courts appoint an amicus curiae in criminal matters?
🟩 Options:
(A) To ensure that the prosecution has adequate resources to argue its case
(B) To expedite the trial process for efficiency
(C) To provide representation to the accused when they are unrepresented
(D) To act as a mediator between the accused and the victim
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
To provide representation to the accused when they are unrepresented
📘 Explanation:
Amicus Curiae means “friend of the court.”
In criminal matters, the court may appoint an amicus curiae when:
The accused is not represented by a lawyer.
The case involves complex issues requiring independent legal assistance to aid the court.
While amicus curiae does not act as a mediator or directly assist the prosecution, they ensure that justice is served by fair representation, especially for the accused.
26.
The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ has several elements, some of which are as follows:
(i) Absence of arbitrary power
(ii) Equality before law
(iii) Primacy of the rights of the individual
(iv) Cannot be destroyed by an amendment
Question:
Which of the above are applicable to the Indian system?
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
examine them in the context of the Indian Constitution:
(i) Absence of arbitrary power ✅
Applicable. The Indian Constitution provides checks and balances (like judicial review) to prevent arbitrary use of power.
(ii) Equality before law ✅
Applicable. Article 14 guarantees “Equality before law and equal protection of the laws”.
(iii) Primacy of the rights of the individual ❌
Not fully applicable. In India, individual rights are subject to reasonable restrictions for the greater public good. The Constitution balances individual rights with directive principles and public interest—unlike systems where individual rights are supreme.
(iv) Cannot be destroyed by an amendment ✅
Partially Applicable. The Basic Structure Doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973) ensures that core principles like the Rule of Law cannot be amended. But some rights can still be modified or restricted, so it’s not absolutely immune from amendments.
Conclusion:
(i) ✅
(ii) ✅
(iv) ✅ (due to Basic Structure Doctrine)
(iii) ❌ (not absolute in India)
✅ Correct answer: (D) (i), (ii), and (iv) only
27.
W. W. Rostow’s model of economic development proposes that all countries progress through five stages.
What is the correct sequence of the five stages?
(A)
(i) Traditional society,
(ii) Pre-conditions for takeoff,
(iii) Take-off,
(iv) Age of high mass consumption,
(v) Drive to maturity
(B)
(i) Traditional society,
(ii) Take-off,
(iii) Pre-conditions for take-off,
(iv) Drive to maturity,
(v) Age of high mass consumption
(C)
(i) Traditional society,
(ii) Pre-conditions for takeoff,
(iii) Take-off,
(iv) Drive to maturity,
(v) Age of high mass consumption ✅
(D)
(i) Traditional society,
(ii) Pre-conditions for takeoff,
(iii) Age of high mass consumption,
(iv) Drive to maturity,
(v) Take-off
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
📘 Explanation:
W. W. Rostow’s “Stages of Economic Growth” model outlines how economies develop in 5 linear stages:
Traditional Society:
Based on subsistence agriculture, limited technology, and static society.
Preconditions for Take-off:
Begins to develop infrastructure, increase investment, and prepare for industrialization.
Take-off:
Rapid growth in a few industries, increased urbanization and industrialization.
Drive to Maturity:
Technological and industrial expansion spreads throughout the economy.
Age of High Mass Consumption:
Economy shifts to consumer goods and services; higher living standards.
28.
Biofuels offer a viable alternative towards environmentally friendly energy landscape. Which of the following statements regarding use of biofuels to meet energy demands are correct?
(i) Aggressive use and production of first-generation biofuels may threaten food security. ✅
(ii) Production of first-generation biofuels is not environment-friendly. ✅
(iii) A concern regarding biofuels is that extensive cultivation of plants for extracting biofuels may increase deforestation and habitat destruction. ✅
(iv) Biofuel production will lead to large amount of toxic metallic waste which may adversely affect human health. ❌
Correct Answer: ✅ (A) (i), (ii), and (iii)
✅ Explanation:
(i) ✔ Correct:
First-generation biofuels (like ethanol from corn, sugarcane) use food crops — causing competition with food supply, which can threaten food security.
(ii) ✔ Correct:
While biofuels are renewable, first-generation ones may require intensive farming, fertilizers, and pesticides, making them less eco-friendly.
(iii) ✔ Correct:
Large-scale cultivation for biofuels can lead to deforestation, loss of biodiversity, and habitat destruction.
(iv) ❌ Incorrect:
Biofuel production does not generate large amounts of toxic metallic waste — this is more typical of industrial or electronic waste, not biofuels.
29.
List–I (Names of satellites)
a. RISAT–2BR2
b. Megha-Tropiques
c. AstroSat
d. Aditya-L1
List–II (Types of satellites)
Meteorological
Earth observation
Solar coronal observation
Study high-energy processes in binary star system
Correct Matching:
a. RISAT–2BR2 → 2. Earth observation
It is a radar imaging satellite used for surveillance and earth observation.
b. Megha-Tropiques → 1. Meteorological
It is a weather satellite used to study the water cycle and climate.
c. AstroSat → 4. Study high-energy processes in binary star system
India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory.
d. Aditya-L1 → 3. Solar coronal observation
First Indian mission to study the Sun, especially the solar corona.
30.
Nanomaterials are usually considered to be materials with at least one external dimension that measures 100 nanometres or less.
Consider the following statements regarding nanomaterials:
(i) They are toxic and carcinogenic.
(ii) Graphene is a well-known nanomaterial.
(iii) Nanoscale titanium dioxide can be used in sunscreen lotion.
(iv) Paints made from nano gold do not fade with time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) (ii) and (iii) only
(B) (i) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) All the statements are correct
Correct Answer: (D) All the statements are correct
Explanation:
(i) Some nanomaterials can be toxic or carcinogenic, though not all. This is a recognized concern in nanotoxicology.
(ii) Graphene is indeed a well-known nanomaterial.
(iii) Nanoscale titanium dioxide is used in sunscreens for UV protection.
(iv) Nano gold is used in paints for its durability and colorfastness.
31.
Consider the following statements:
(i) Initially, ITER was called Indian Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor.
(ii) ITER is a nuclear fusion research and engineering megaproject.
(iii) ITER is a nuclear fission research and engineering megaproject.
(iv) ITER means ‘the way’ or ‘the path’ in Latin.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (ii) and (iv) only
Correct Answer: (D) (ii) and (iv) only
Explanation:
(i) ✗ Incorrect — ITER stands for International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor, not Indian.
(ii) ✅ Correct — ITER is a nuclear fusion research and engineering project.
(iii) ✗ Incorrect — It is based on fusion, not fission.
(iv) ✅ Correct — “ITER” also means “the way” or “the path” in Latin.
32.
Consider the following statements:
(i) Particular messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules, which are smaller than their average size, are called microRNA (miRNA).
(ii) miRNA are small, single-stranded, non-coding RNA molecules.
(iii) miRNA molecules play a crucial role in gene regulation.
(iv) People knew about miRNA since the early 1980s.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iv) only
(D) (ii) and (iv) only
✅ Correct Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation:
(i) ❌ Incorrect – miRNA are not derived from mRNA; they are non-coding RNA molecules distinct from mRNA and are not “smaller mRNA”.
(ii) ✅ Correct – miRNAs are small, single-stranded, non-coding RNA molecules (~21–25 nucleotides).
(iii) ✅ Correct – miRNAs play a crucial role in gene regulation, especially by silencing or degrading mRNA.
(iv) ❌ Incorrect – miRNAs were discovered in the early 1990s, not 1980s.
33.
33. Consider the following statements:
(i) Indian scientist Satyendra Nath Bose developed the foundation of a quantum statistics called Bose-Einstein statistics.
(ii) A class of elementary subatomic particles called boson was named after Satyendra Nath Bose by P. A. M. Dirac.
(iii) Einstein used Satyendra Nath Bose’s radical ideas to develop the theory of a phenomenon called Bose-Einstein condensate.
(iv) Satyendra Nath Bose was awarded India’s second highest civilian award, the Padma Vibhushan.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) All the statements are correct
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
✅ Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(i) ✅ Correct – Satyendra Nath Bose laid the foundation of Bose-Einstein statistics in quantum mechanics.
(ii) ✅ Correct – Bosons were named after Bose, and Dirac helped formalize this naming.
(iii) ✅ Correct – Einstein used Bose’s ideas to predict the Bose-Einstein condensate.
34.
Consider the following statements:
(i) Dark oxygen was discovered in 2013 by Andrew Sweetman while conducting ship-based fieldwork in the Pacific Ocean.
(ii) Dark oxygen was discovered in 2013 by Andrew Sweetman while conducting research on dusty plasma in cometary tails.
(iii) Dark oxygen refers to molecular oxygen that is produced in the total darkness of the very deep ocean.
(iv) Dark oxygen refers to the medical oxygen cylinders, which are sold in the black market.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (iv) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
✅ Correct Answer: (D) (i) and (iii) only
Explanation:
(i) ✅ Correct – In 2013, Andrew Sweetman and his team discovered traces of oxygen (termed dark oxygen) during ship-based studies in deep-sea sediments in the Pacific Ocean, not related to space or comets.
(ii) ❌ Incorrect – The reference to “dusty plasma in cometary tails” is unrelated and incorrect in the context of dark oxygen.
(iii) ✅ Correct – Dark oxygen refers to oxygen produced in absence of sunlight, i.e., in dark deep-sea environments, typically by microbial processes.
(iv) ❌ Incorrect – The term dark oxygen is not used to refer to black-market medical oxygen cylinders.
35.
If an object undergoes a uniform circular motion, then its:
(A) acceleration remains uniform
(B) velocity changes
(C) speed changes
(D) velocity remains uniform
✅ Correct Answer: (B) velocity changes
Explanation:
In uniform circular motion, the object moves with constant speed, but the direction of motion continuously changes, which means the velocity vector changes (since velocity = speed + direction).
Therefore:
Speed remains constant → ❌ (C) is incorrect.
Velocity changes due to direction change → ✅ (B) is correct.
Acceleration exists (centripetal), but its magnitude is constant, while its direction changes → ❌ (A) is incorrect.
Velocity does not remain uniform → ❌ (D) is incorrect.
36.
The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to
(A) surface tension
(B) viscosity
(C) density
(D) vapour pressure
Correct Answer: (A) surface tension
Explanation:
Surface tension is the force that causes the surface of a liquid to contract and behave like a stretched elastic sheet. This force minimizes the surface area of the liquid. That’s why a liquid drop tends to form a spherical shape—because a sphere has the minimum surface area for a given volume.
37.
Match the following books (List–I) with the names of the authors (List–II):
List–I
a. India Against Itself: Assam and the Politics of Nationality
b. Burden of History: Assam and the Partition—Unresolved Issues
c. Writing on the Wall: Reflections on the North-East
d. Confronting the State: ULFA’s Quest for Sovereignty
List–II
Udayon Misra
Sanjib Baruah
Nani Gopal Mahanta
Sanjoy Hazarika
Correct Matching:
a — 2 (Sanjib Baruah)
b — 1 (Udayon Misra)
c — 4 (Sanjoy Hazarika)
d — 3 (Nani Gopal Mahanta)
✅ Correct Option: (A)
These authors are well-known for their academic and journalistic work on Northeast India, particularly Assam.
38.
Which of the following statements are true about Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?
(i) SDGs, also known as the Global Goals, were adopted by the United Nations in 2015.
(ii) It was a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity.
(iii) The 17 SDGs are integrated—they recognize that action in one area will affect outcomes in others and development must balance social, economic and environmental sustainability.
(iv) The SDGs are designed to end poverty, hunger, AIDS and discrimination against women and girls.
Correct Option: (C) ✅
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation:
All four statements accurately describe the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
(i) Adopted in 2015 by the UN.
(ii) Aim to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure prosperity by 2030.
(iii) Emphasize integrated action balancing sustainability.
(iv) Target key global issues like hunger, AIDS, and gender discrimination.
39.
Match the following authors (List–I) with the books (List–II):
List–I (Authors)
a. Amartya Sen
b. Abhijit Banerjee and Esther Duflo
c. Jeffrey D. Sachs
d. Thomas Friedman
List–II (Books)
The End of Poverty: Economic Possibilities for Our Time
The World is Flat
Poor Economics
Development as Freedom
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(B) a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2
(C) a–3, b–4, c–2, d–1
(D) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4
Explanation:
a. Amartya Sen → Development as Freedom → (4)
(He is a Nobel laureate known for his work in welfare economics and authored this landmark book.)
b. Abhijit Banerjee and Esther Duflo → Poor Economics → (3)
(This book, co-authored by the Nobel Prize-winning duo, explores poverty and economic behavior.)
c. Jeffrey D. Sachs → The End of Poverty → (1)
(A well-known economist who focuses on global poverty and sustainable development.)
d. Thomas Friedman → The World is Flat → (2)
(A journalist and author known for writing about globalization and its effects.)
Correct Matching:
a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2
Which corresponds to Option (B).
40.
Which of the following is not published by the UNDP?
Options:
(A) The Human Development Index
(B) The Global Hunger Index
(C) The Gender Inequality Index
(D) The Global Multi-dimensional Poverty Index
✅ Correct Answer: (B) The Global Hunger Index
Explanation:
Here’s a breakdown of who publishes each index:
(A) Human Development Index (HDI) → Published by UNDP
Introduced in 1990, HDI measures a country’s average achievements in health, education, and income.
(B) Global Hunger Index (GHI) → Not published by UNDP
Jointly published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe, not the UNDP.
(C) Gender Inequality Index (GII) → Published by UNDP
Measures gender disparities in health, empowerment, and labor market participation.
(D) Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) → Published by UNDP and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI)
It captures multiple deprivations faced by people in health, education, and living standards.
41.
Q. Which of the following statements describes tariff in the context of international trade?
(A) It is a tax on imports into a country.
(B) It is a tax imposed by a country on goods crossing its border.
(C) It is a quantitative restriction on traded goods.
(D) It is a reciprocal tax.
✅ Correct Answer: (A) It is a tax on imports into a country.
Analysis:
Option (A) is correct.
A tariff is a tax levied by a government on goods imported into the country. It raises the cost of imported goods and is used to protect domestic industries or to generate revenue.
Option (B) is partially correct but imprecise.
While a tariff is imposed on goods crossing borders, the phrase is vague. “Crossing its border” could imply both imports and exports, but tariffs typically apply to imports, not all cross-border movement.
Option (C) is incorrect.
This describes a quota, not a tariff. A quantitative restriction limits the volume of goods traded, not their taxation.
Option (D) is incorrect and misleading.
A reciprocal tax implies mutual or two-way taxation, which is not a defining characteristic of tariffs.
Summary:
A tariff is best defined as a tax on imports—as stated clearly in Option (A). The other options either generalize, misclassify, or confuse related trade policy instruments
42.
The Government of Assam has introduced various schemes to help the poor, livelihood and self-employment. Match the following schemes (List–I) with their provisions (List–II):
List–I
a. Orunodoi Scheme
b. Assam Arogya Nidhi Scheme
c. Swahid Kushal Konwar Sarbajanin Briddha Pension Achoni
d. Kanaklata Mahila Sabalikaran Yojana
List–II
Pension scheme for senior citizens covering all eligible individuals in the State
A flagship scheme under Assam State Rural Livelihood Mission aiming to generate sustainable livelihood for women in rural areas by forming Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
A major poverty alleviation programme that provides monthly financial assistance to poor households through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)
Provides financial assistance for the treatment of serious diseases and injuries including those caused by natural or manmade disasters, for families with an annual income of less than ₹5 lakhs
Options:
(A) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2 ✅
(B) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
(C) a–3, b–1, c–2, d–4
(D) a–1, b–4, c–2, d–3
Analysis of Correct Matching:
Let’s match each scheme with its correct provision:
a. Orunodoi Scheme → 3
This scheme is aimed at poverty alleviation through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to poor households, primarily for nutritional and essential health support.
b. Assam Arogya Nidhi Scheme → 4
This scheme provides financial assistance for treatment of serious health issues, especially for low-income families.
c. Swahid Kushal Konwar Sarbajanin Briddha Pension Achoni → 1
This is a pension scheme meant for senior citizens in Assam.
d. Kanaklata Mahila Sabalikaran Yojana → 2
This scheme works under Assam State Rural Livelihood Mission (ASRLM) and targets women empowerment through Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
43.
Which of the following statements regarding post-development theory are true?
(i) Arturo Escobar is one of the leading post-development scholars.
(ii) Post-development is an argument for alternatives to development.
(iii) Developing countries should be able to make decisions for themselves based on their own choices, on their own discourses.
(iv) Post-development theory argues that there is no universal mode of development to be followed.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) ✅
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
Answer: (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) ✅
Explanation:
All four statements correctly reflect the core ideas of post-development theory:
(i) Arturo Escobar – ✔️ True
Arturo Escobar is a prominent figure in post-development discourse. His book “Encountering Development” critiques mainstream development paradigms.
(ii) Argument for alternatives – ✔️ True
Post-development emphasizes alternatives to the Western model of development, often promoting indigenous, local, and sustainable approaches.
(iii) Local decision-making – ✔️ True
It argues for empowering local voices and communities, allowing them to define progress based on their own cultural and social context.
(iv) No universal mode – ✔️ True
A central claim of post-development theory is that development is not a one-size-fits-all model and should not be imposed universally.
44.
The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are:
(i) Pre-agricultural level of technology
(ii) Low level of literacy
(iii) Economic backwardness
(iv) A declining or stagnant population
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation:
The Government of India has listed the following four official criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):
Pre-agricultural level of technology ✔️
PVTGs still depend on primitive means of subsistence like shifting cultivation, hunting-gathering, etc.
Low level of literacy ✔️
Literacy rates among PVTGs are extremely low compared to national and even tribal averages.
Economic backwardness ✔️
PVTGs are among the poorest in terms of income, employment, and access to basic amenities.
A declining or stagnant population ✔️
Unlike the general population growth trend, PVTGs often show a decline or stagnation in their population figures.
45.
The Social Development Index (SDI) is a composite index which considers important dimensions of social development such as:
(i) Demographic parameters
(ii) Health indicators and educational attainment
(iii) Basic amenities and economic deprivation
(iv) Social deprivation parameters
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) ✅
✅ Correct Answer: (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation:
The Social Development Index (SDI) is designed to capture the broader aspects of development beyond just economic indicators. It includes:
Demographic parameters – such as population growth, age structure, etc.
Health indicators and educational attainment – including life expectancy, infant mortality, literacy, and school enrollment rates.
Basic amenities and economic deprivation – availability of housing, drinking water, sanitation, and access to income.
Social deprivation parameters – covering exclusion, inequality, caste, gender-based disparities, etc.
Q.
Which of the following is a graphical representation of income distribution used to calculate the Gini coefficient?
(A) Pareto chart
(B) Lorenz curve ✅
(C) Income-consumption curve
(D) Kuznets curve
✅ Correct Answer: (B) Lorenz curve
Explanation:
The Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of income or wealth distribution.
It plots the cumulative percentage of total income received against the cumulative percentage of recipients, starting with the poorest.
The Gini coefficient is derived from the area between the Lorenz curve and the line of equality (a 45-degree line), indicating the degree of inequality.
Other options:
Pareto chart – a type of bar chart used for quality control, not income distribution.
Income-consumption curve – relates income and consumption patterns, not inequality.
Kuznets curve – hypothesizes the relationship between income inequality and economic development over time, not used for calculating Gini coefficient.
Q.
Which of the following is not a fiscal instrument?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
(C) Income Tax
(D) Subsidy
✅ Correct Answer: (A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
Explanation:
Fiscal instruments are tools used by the government to influence the economy through revenue and expenditure, such as:
Taxes (e.g., GST, Income Tax)
Subsidies and public spending
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a monetary policy instrument, not a fiscal one.
It is used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to control liquidity in the banking system.
It mandates banks to keep a certain percentage of their deposits as reserves with the RBI.
Q.
Which of the following conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI)?
(A) The Reserve Bank of India
(B) The Department of Economic Affairs
(C) The Labour Bureau
(D) The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
✅ Correct Answer: (D) The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Explanation:
The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is the principal source of industrial statistics in India.
It is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
ASI covers registered manufacturing units and provides data on employment, output, wages, and other industrial parameters.
Q.
An increase in the tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?
(i) Larger fiscal ability
(ii) Equitable distribution of income
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
✅ Correct Answer: (A) (i) only
Explanation:
Tax to GDP ratio is a measure of a government’s tax revenue relative to its gross domestic product (GDP).
A higher ratio suggests that the government has a greater capacity to raise revenue, i.e., larger fiscal ability to fund public expenditure.
✅ (i) Larger fiscal ability → Correct
❌ (ii) Equitable distribution of income → Not necessarily correct, because a higher tax-GDP ratio does not automatically imply income is being distributed equitably. It depends on the progressiveness of the tax system and how the revenue is spent.
Q.
To arrange the events in ascending yearwise order, let’s first list them with their respective years:
Bhopal Gas Tragedy – 1984
Chernobyl Disaster – 1986
Fukushima Daiichi Disaster – 2011
Oil Spill in the Gulf of Mexico (Deepwater Horizon) – 2010
Chronological Order:
(i) Bhopal (1984) → (ii) Chernobyl (1986) → (iv) Gulf Oil Spill (2010) → (iii) Fukushima (2011)
✅ Correct Answer: (A) (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (iii)
Course Purchase Query 