APSC FOREST RANGER 2026 BOTANY OPTIONAL QUESTION PAPER

1. The evolutionary advancement shown by heterospory is: (A) independent gametophyte (B) origin of seed habit (C) reduction of sporophyte (D) appearance of archegonia

2. Which of the following is not one of the processes involved in Frame theory? (A) Overtopping (B) Planation (C) Syngamy (D) Webbing

3. A protostele with xylem arranged in radiating arms is: (A) plectostele (B) actinostele (C) solenostele (D) eustele

4. Out of the following pteridophytes, which one is homosporous? (A) Selaginella (B) Salvinia (C) Equisetum (D) Marsilea

5. The Kranz anatomy of C₄ plants is characterized by: (A) presence of palisade and spongy cells (B) bundle sheath cells rich in chloroplasts (C) xylem surrounded by phloem (D) bulliform cells in epidermis

6. Heterocysts in Anabaena are specialized for: (A) photosynthesis (B) spore formation (C) nitrogen fixation (D) movement

7. Lichen that appears like a thin, flat crust adhering tightly to the substrate is called: (A) foliose (B) fruticose (C) crustose (D) squamulose

8. Aflatoxin is produced by: (A) Rhizopus nigricans (B) Aspergillus flavus (C) Penicillium notatum (D) Candida albicans

9. Sclerenchyma cells are: (A) living cells with thin walls (B) dead cells with thick, lignified walls (C) living cells with thickened walls (D) dead cells with thin walls

10. An exception to cell theory is: (A) bacteria (B) virus (C) protozoa (D) cyanobacteria

11. In chloroplasts, non-cyclic electron transport occurs in: (A) [obscured] (B) stroma lamellae (C) cytoplasm (D) outer membrane

12. Use and disuse theory of organs was proposed by: (A) Darwin (B) Wallace (C) Lamarck (D) Mendel

13. The mature embryo sac in Polygonum type is: (A) 8-celled, 7-nucleate (B) 7-celled, 8-nucleate (C) 4-celled, 4-nucleate (D) 3-celled, 3-nucleate

14. A food chain in which organisms feed on dead organic matter is: (A) grazing food chain (B) detritus food chain (C) predator food chain (D) omnivore food chain

15. Legumes are characteristic fruits of the family: (A) Solanaceae (B) Poaceae (C) Fabaceae (D) Malvaceae

16. Asexual spores in deuteromycetes are called: (A) conidia (B) basidiospores (C) zygospores (D) ascospores

17. Engler and Prantl system is based on: (A) molecular data (B) morphological characters and evolutionary trends (C) cytogenetics (D) palynology

18. Kelp belongs to: (A) Chlorophyta (B) Phaeophyta (C) Rhodophyta (D) Cyanophyta

19. Coenocytic mycelium is a characteristic feature of: (A) ascomycetes (B) phycomycetes (C) basidiomycetes (D) deuteromycetes

20. The pyramid of energy is always: (A) upright (B) inverted (C) spindle-shaped (D) variable

21. Golden Rice is enriched with: (A) iron (B) vitamin C (C) β-carotene (D) vitamin D

22. Tyloses are associated with: (A) phloem (B) sclerenchyma (C) collenchyma (D) xylem vessels

23. In dicot stems, the arrangement of vascular bundles is: (A) scattered (B) conjoint, collateral and open (C) radial (D) conjoint, collateral and closed

24. The most highly evolved angiospermic family is: (A) Magnoliaceae (B) Ranunculaceae (C) Orchidaceae (D) Fabaceae

25. Clamp connections are very common in: (A) ascomycetes (B) basidiomycetes (C) phycomycetes (D) deuteromycetes

26. The segment of DNA strand on which a new strand is produced is known as: (A) codon (B) anticodon (C) template (D) nucleotide

27. Genes that shuffle from one location to the other are called: (A) walking genes (B) running genes (C) jumping genes (D) lethal genes

28. Some of the diseases caused by bacteria are: (A) measles, mumps, malaria (B) tetanus, typhoid, tuberculosis (C) smallpox, sleeping sickness, syphilis (D) pneumonia, polio, ringworm

29. Ulothrix is more advanced than Spirogyra because in Ulothrix: (A) filament is differentiated into holdfast and apical cell (B) gametes are motile (C) chloroplast is parietal and girdle-shaped (D) zoospores are found

30. Vascular canals of Equisetum are situated: (A) beneath the ridges (B) beneath the furrows (C) between the ridges and furrows (D) between the pith and endodermis

31. When F₁ plants, heterozygous for tallness are selfed, F₂ generation has both tall and dwarf plants. This depicts the principle of: (A) dominance (B) law of segregation (C) law of independent assortment (D) blended inheritance

32. In meiosis, crossing-over is completed during: (A) pachytene (B) leptotene (C) zygotene (D) diplotene

33. Membrane-bound oil bodies are a characteristic feature of: (A) all bryophytes (B) all fungi (C) all algae (D) only liverworts

34. In cyclic photophosphorylation, ATP is produced without the generation of NADPH. Which of the following best explains why plants use this pathway? (A) To increase oxygen production (B) To prevent photoinhibition (C) To utilize PSI when PSII is inactive (D) To balance the ATP/NADPH ratio required for the Calvin cycle

35. A biennial plant fails to flower if vernalization requirement is not fulfilled. This is because: (A) photoperiod sensitivity is absent (B) flowering hormone is not synthesized (C) nitrogen supply is insufficient (D) phytochrome is non-functional

36. Annual rings in woody dicot stems are formed due to: (A) alternating activity of apical meristem (B) deposition of lignin in xylem (C) seasonal activity of vascular cambium (D) secondary phloem thickening

37. Which of the following best explains the pressure flow hypothesis of phloem transport? (A) Osmotic pressure difference drives bulk flow (B) ATP hydrolysis directly pumps sucrose along sieve tubes (C) Capillary action causes bulk movement of phloem sap (D) Root pressure drives long-distance phloem transport

38. The main role of botanical garden is: (A) only ex-situ conservation (B) only in-situ conservation (C) production of flowers and fruits (D) conservation, education and research

39. Magnoliaceae is considered as primitive among angiosperms because: (A) flowers are large with indefinite numbers of spirally arranged parts (B) seeds have large single cotyledon (C) leaves are large and compound (D) xylem lacks vessels

40. The fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane suggests: (A) proteins are rigidly fixed in lipid bilayer (B) lipids and proteins can move laterally within the bilayer (C) only carbohydrates are permeable (D) it is a solid rigid structure

41. Endemic species are significant in conservation biology because: (A) they are widely distributed (B) they have high adaptability (C) they are restricted to specific habitats (D) None of the above

42. How many base pairs are present in each turn of a double helix of B-DNA? (A) 12 (B) 11 (C) 10 (D) 15

43. Which one of the following green-house gases has the highest global warming potential? (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methane (C) Nitrous oxide (D) Sulphur hexafluoride

44. Excessive use of phosphate fertilizers leads to eutrophication because: (A) phosphorus accumulates in fish tissues (B) it increases algal bloom (C) it gets converted to nitrogenous compounds (D) it reduces oxygen solubility

45. Xerophytic plants often develop thick cuticles and sunken stomata. These adaptations help in: (A) maximizing photosynthesis (B) increasing pollination efficiency (C) enhancing nutrient uptake (D) reducing transpiration

46. Which is the first herbarium of India? (A) The Central National Herbarium, Kolkata (B) The Forest Research Institute Herbarium, Dehradun (C) The Blatter Herbarium, Mumbai (D) The National Botanical Research Institute Herbarium, Lucknow

47. Which hormone breaks seed dormancy? (A) Gibberellic acid (B) Auxin (C) Cytokinin (D) Abscisic acid

48. In cyathium inflorescence, the ratio between male and female flowers is: (A) one : many (B) many : one (C) one : one (D) many : many

49. Red Data Book is produced by: (A) WWF (B) IBWL (C) IUCN (D) BSI

50. Agar-agar is obtained from the species of: (A) Laminaria (B) Gelidium (C) both Gracilaria and Gelidium (D) Gymnodinium

51. Which one of the following pigments is found in all classes of algae? (A) Chl b (B) Chl c (C) Chl d (D) Chl a

52. Polyembryony is the development of: (A) multiple embryos from a single fertilized egg (B) multiple embryos from multiple fertilized eggs (C) single embryo from multiple fertilized eggs (D) seeds without fertilization

53. The mechanism of DNA modification is carried out by: (A) acetylation (B) methylation (C) proto-reactivation (D) excessive repair system

54. The steps in commercial production of tea are: (A) plucking, drying, withering, rolling, fermentation (B) plucking, withering, drying, rolling, fermentation (C) plucking, withering, rolling, fermentation, drying (D) plucking, rolling, drying, withering, fermentation

55. Which cofactor is essential for nitrite reductase activity in plants? (A) Copper (B) Zinc (C) Molybdenum (D) Iron-sulphur cluster

56. In virus, the genetic material is surrounded by a protein wall called: (A) capsule (B) sheath (C) capsid (D) prion

57. Chrysolaminarin and oil are the reserve foods of

(A) diatoms
(B) prokaryotes
(C) blue-green algae
(D) Euglena

58. Middle lamella is composed of: (A) muramic acid (B) calcium pectate (C) hemicellulose (D) phosphoglycerides

59. The major site of lipid synthesis in the cell is: (A) cytoplasm (B) rough-walled endoplasmic reticulum (C) smooth-walled endoplasmic reticulum (D) nucleus

60. The largest organelle in the plant cell is: (A) mitochondria (B) chloroplast (C) Golgi body (D) vacuole

61. Coconut milk plays an important role in tissue culture because it contains: (A) auxin (B) gibberellin (C) cytokinin (D) ethylene

62. The term ‘mitochondria’ was given by: (A) Benda (B) Altmann (C) Kölliker (D) Palade

63. The quiescent centre: (A) serves as a continuous source of active meristematic initials (B) serves as a storehouse of DNA and RNA (C) has maximum mitotic activity in shoot apex (D) None of the above

64. The characteristic smell of onion bulb is due to the presence of: (A) sugars (B) sulphur compounds (C) alcohol (D) ketones

65. Ozone layer protects biosphere from high-energy

(A) infrared rays
(B) X-rays
(C) cosmic rays
(D) ultraviolet rays

66. Halophytes are: (A) cold-resistant (B) salt-loving (C) salt-resistant (D) sand-loving

67. Which of the following amino acids contains a heterocyclic ring? (A) Phenylalanine (B) Tyrosine (C) Tryptophan (D) Glutamine

68. The amount of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next level is: (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 16% (D) 20%

69. A bisexual flower which always remains close is called: (A) dichogamous (B) cleistogamous (C) chasmogamous (D) geitonogamous

70. Single cotyledon of grass embryo is called: (A) perisperm (B) endosperm (C) idioblast (D) scutellum

71. Timber is obtained from some members of the family: (A) Liliaceae (B) Fabaceae (C) Solanaceae (D) Ranunculaceae

72. Which type of inflorescence is found in Ficus? (A) Cymose (B) Racemose (C) Hypanthodium (D) Verticillaster

73. Photosynthesis is a/an: (A) catabolic process (B) anabolic process (C) degenerative process (D) amphibolic process

74. What does VAM stand for? (A) Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza (B) Vascular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza (C) Vesicular Aerial Mycorrhiza (D) Vascular Aerial Mycorrhiza

75. The potentiality of a plant cell to develop into a whole plant is called: (A) tissue culture (B) pluripotency (C) totipotency (D) gene cloning

76. Nuclear membrane disappears at: (A) early prophase (B) anaphase (C) metaphase (D) late prophase

77. The instrument used to measure the rate of transpiration is: (A) auxometer (B) Ganong’s potometer (C) Ganong’s respirometer (D) None of the above

78. OTU is related to: (A) phylogenetic study (B) classical taxonomy (C) chemotaxonomy (D) numerical taxonomy

79. Endospore in bacteria provides resistance against: (A) UV radiation (B) high temperature (C) desiccation (D) All of the above

80. The primary function of bacterial fimbriae is

(A) attachment to surfaces
(B) motility
(C) DNA transfer
(D) protein synthesis

81. Which rank is not mandatory in the hierarchy of plant classification under ICBN? (A) Family (B) Order (C) Sub-family (D) Class

82. An example of monotypic genus is: (A) Ficus (B) Ginkgo (C) Rosa (D) Acacia

83. Homologous structures are the evidence for: (A) convergent evolution (B) divergent evolution (C) adaptive evolution (D) Both (B) and (C)

84. A synthetic auxin used as a weedicide is: (A) NAA (B) 2,4-D (C) IAA (D) GA₃

85. Which of the following is not stomatal type? (A) Anisocytic (B) Diacytic (C) Paracytic (D) Hydathody

86. The major constituent of cork is: (A) suberin (B) cellulose (C) pectin (D) lignin

87. Flowers in which the ovary is above the other floral parts are called: (A) epigynous (B) perigynous (C) hypogynous (D) None of the above

88. Anemophilous plants generally produce pollen that are: (A) large and sticky (B) small, light and dry (C) large with exine sculpturing (D) few in number

89. The frequency of recombination between two linked genes is directly proportional to: (A) the distance between them on the chromosome (B) the size of the chromosome (C) the ploidy level of the organism (D) the number of chiasmata per cell

90. The edge effect is most pronounced in: (A) deserts (B) oceans (C) uniform habitats (D) ecotones

91. Pioneer species in primary succession are usually: (A) grasses (B) mosses and lichens (C) shrubs (D) large trees

92. Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is calculated as: (A) GPP − Respiration (B) Respiration + GPP (C) GPP + Respiration (D) GPP × Respiration

93. The first stable product of the Calvin cycle is: (A) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (B) 3-phosphoglycerate (C) phosphoenolpyruvate (D) ribulose biphosphate

94. Photosystem directly associated with photolysis of water is: (A) PSI (B) PSII (C) both PSI and PSII (D) None of the above

95. Bt crops are resistant to: (A) viral infections (B) insects (C) fungal diseases (D) herbicides

96. The technique most suitable for producing haploid plants is called: (A) anther culture (B) organogenesis (C) embryo culture (D) somatic hybridization

97. Somatic hybridization is achieved through: (A) micropropagation (B) protoplast fusion (C) somatic embryogenesis (D) anther culture

98. The Irish potato famine was caused by: (A) Rhizoctonia solani (B) Xanthomonas oryzae (C) Puccinia graminis (D) Phytophthora infestans

99. Ergot of rye produces: (A) alkaloids (B) toxins (C) antibiotics (D) phytoalexins

100. The intoxicating drug in Papaver somniferum is: (A) morphine (B) caffeine (C) nicotine (D) quinine

Analysis

Topic-wise distribution:

Topic Area	Approx. Questions	Examples
Plant Anatomy & Morphology	~15	3, 9, 22, 23, 33, 39, 58, 60, 69–72, 76, 85–88
Physiology (photosynthesis, hormones, transport)	~15	5, 34, 37, 40, 47, 55, 59, 61, 73, 74, 93–95, 97
Genetics & Molecular Biology	~12	10, 26, 27, 31, 32, 42, 53, 56, 63, 67, 89
Ecology & Environment	~14	6, 14, 20, 43, 44, 49, 66, 68, 79, 90–92
Taxonomy & Systematics	~10	2, 17, 46, 78, 81–83
Algae, Fungi, Lichens, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes	~12	4, 7, 8, 16, 18, 19, 25, 29, 30, 33, 50, 51
Cell Biology	~8	62, 64, 84…
Biotechnology/Applied Botany	~8	38, 41, 48, 52, 54, 75, 96, 98, 99, 100
Evolution	~3	1, 12, 83

Key observations:

1. Strong applied/economic botany focus — tea processing (54), agar-agar (50), Bt crops (95), Irish potato famine (98), ergot (99), opium (100)
2. Heavy ecology weightage (~14%) — succession, NPP, trophic levels, edge effect, greenhouse gases
3. Balanced across levels of plant life — algae → fungi → bryophytes → pteridophytes → gymnosperms → angiosperms
4. Moderate-to-high difficulty — several questions require precise recall (exact herbarium names, precise hormone-mechanism links, cyathium ratios) rather than simple identification; a few (34, 35, 37) are reasoning-based rather than pure fact recall.
5. Genetics/molecular questions are conceptual, not calculation-heavy